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TUTOR - Acid - Base
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167322
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A 15 year-old boy is brought to the ER by his foster mother who states that when she got home from work she noticed he was acting very strange. He had slurred speech and seemed confused. He appeared to be very uncoordinated and she was not sure if he fell or hit his head. She states that he is somewhat a troubled boy but doesn’t know much about his history as he has been in and out of the foster care system out of state. On physical exam, he is tachycardic and has tachypnoea. Pupils are dilated, but there is no nystagmus. A fundoscopic exam shows hyperemia of the optic disk. He is relatively uncooperative but not aggressive or hostile. When asked about suicidal thoughts he responds only with inaudible mumbling. His foster mother left for work 10 hours prior and assumed he left for school. She is not sure when these symptoms began or what may have initiated them. P is 105/ min, BP is 140/90 mm Hg, RR is 28/min, and T is 97.1 F. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Na   135 mEq/L                                            

K   5.0 mEq/L

CL   105 mEq/L

BUN  19 mg/dL

Cr   1.3 mg/dL         

HCO3  8 mEq/L  

Glucose  100 mg/dL         

pH   7.3          

pO2   90 mmHg

pCO2  22 mmHg

Measured serum osmolarity  320 mmol/L

What is the next step in management?

A.  Gastric lavage
B.  N-acetylcystiene and activated charcoal
C. Fomepizole 
D. Fomepizole and Hemodialysis 
E.  Obtain serum levels of salycylate, methanol and ethylene glycol levels
The correct answer is D
Hemodialysis and fomepizole

Explanation: 
While this patient's case may appear to be vague, there are three strong indicators for the most likely diagnosis:
1)    This patient has metabolic acidosis with profound Osmolar gap, which is a strong indicator of volatile alcohol related products. 
2)    Hyperemia of the optic disk (or other ocular symptoms) in addition to profound anion gap should make methanol toxicity a top differential diagnosis.  
3)    In addition to the serum anion gap, there is a serum Osmolar gap. (Measured Osm – Calculated Osm) where:

Calculated Osmolarity = 2(Na) + BUN/2.8 + Glu/18

***Anytime there is an osmolar gap in metabolic acidosis, your differentials can be narrowed down to volatile alcohol related substances. ***  --------------->    IMPORTANT ABIM BOARD POINT

The best treatment for methanol and ethylene glycol is to remove the toxic byproducts from circulation. The definitive therapy is Hemodialysis. Fomepizole is given to block alcohol dehydrogenase, thereby stopping the formation of toxic byproducts. However, it does not remove them from circulation, only dialysis can do this.

(Choice A) Gastric lavage is almost never the correct answer, especially with ingestion of an unknown substance. Caustic substances can cause further damage on the way out with the use of gastric lavage. Esophageal perforation is potentially a fatal risk.

(Choice B) N-acetyl cystiene is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity however timing is important and drug levels should be drawn first to determine the need for treatment. If ingestion occurred more than 24 hours earlier, treatment has no effect and is therefore not given.

(Choice C, D) Refer to the explanation section above.

(Choice E) When suspicion for methanol poisoning is high, treatment should not wait for diagnosis confirmation. The presence of ocular involvement is an ominous sign, and the risk of blindness is increased. The benefits outweigh the risk of treating before confirming diagnosis in this case.




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Created On: 09/13/2017
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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165243
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You are the nephrologist on call. The  ER calls you for an 18 year-old female who complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Her serum sodium is 116 mEq/L and Serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. On physical examination the patient is drowsy, Pulse is 126/min, BP is 90/60 mm of Hg, and RR is  32/min. Her chest is clear. Her heart sounds are normal, and no murmur is visible. The patient is drowsy but arousable and there was no focal neurological deficit. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Hb    16 gm/dl 

WBC   12,800/cmm 

Polymorph  46% 

Lymphocytes  16% 

Eosinophils  4%

Monocytes  4%

Platelets   2,40,000/cmm.

CL    70 mEq/L

BUN  10 mg/dl

Creatinine  0.5 mg/dl

Na    116 mEq/L

K    5.8 mEq/L


Urinalysis:

pH    6.4

Protein  trace

Glucose  absent

microscopic occasional WBCs & RBCs

Urinary Na  90 mEq/L

Urinary K         20 mEq/L

ABG    

PH                   7.32

PCO2   36 

HCO3   20 mEq/L

PaO2   92

O2 saturation  98%

S. Cortisol  6.00 mg/dl

TSH   3.5 IU/m (Normal 0-5 IU/m ).

Both plasma Renin and Aldosterone are high. 

Which of the following conditions is most likely with these findings?


A. Type 4 RTA 
B. Pseudo-hypo-aldosteronism Type 1 
C. Gordon's syndrome
D.  Diarrhea
The correct answer is B
 
Pseudo hypo-aldosteronism type 1

Explanation:

This patient has hyponatremia with high urinary sodium. High serum potassium, low urinary potassium, and normal adrenal function. The serum aldosterone level is high, suggesting resistance to aldosterone action of target organ. These findings are characteristic of Pseudohypo aldosteronism type1 (PHA Type1)

PHA type1 is a rare hereditary disorder, characterized by generalized resistance to the action of aldosterone. It presents with 
1. Salt wasting 
2. Hypovolemia 
3. Normotension
4. Metabolic acidosis 
5. Hyperkalemia
6. High Renin and Aldosterone.  

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 6 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 1

These are two different modes of inheritance:
1] Autosomal recessive.
2] Autosomal dominant.

Autosomal recessive affects the epithelial sodium channel and other target organs like kidney, colon, and sweat gland. There is a down regulation of the sodium channels and decreased sodium transport.

Autosomal dominant or sporadic form is due to heterozygous mutations in the NR3C2 gene coding for mineralocorticoid receptor. This is milder form than autosomal recessive disease in which only kidney is affected. The disease often improves with age.

Treatment consists of high salt diet. This prevents volume depletion and by enhancing sodium delivery to the distal tubules, potassium exertion increases, thereby bringing down the serum potassium. 

High dose Fludrocortisone (1 to 2 mg/day ), or Carbenoxolone is indicated if high salt intake is ineffective or not tolerated.

(Choice A) Type IV RTA will have low aldesterone and low renin level. Therefore, that is not the likely answer.

(Choice D) Diarrhea will have metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia and Net urine charge will be negative. This patient has positive Net urine charge with hyperkalemia which rules out diarrhea as a cause.

(Choice C)  = PHA TYPE 2 (Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2) OR = Gordon’s syndrome is characterized by:
 1. Hypertension 
 2. Hyperkalaemia 
 3. Metabolic acidosis
 4. Low plasma Renin and Aldosterone. This is due to mutations in WNK kinases 1 and 4. These mutations result in increased  chloride reabsorption with sodium retention thereby resulting in hypertension.

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 4 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 2 or GORDON's SYNDROME

IF YOU KNOW THESE 10 POINTS OF PSEUDOHYPOALDOSTERONISM TYPE 1 & 2 THAN YOU CAN ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON PHA 1, 2 AND GORDON'S SYNDROME WHICH ARE GOING TO BE ASKED FOR SURE ON THE BOARDS.

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Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167274
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A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

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Last Modified: 03/07/2021

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165247
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A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


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TUTOR - CKD / ESRD / MBD
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165264
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A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165215
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An 18 year-old male is brought to the renal clinic for evaluation of hypertension. There is no history of edema of the feet, puffiness of the face, hematuria, oliguria ,or recurrent urinary tract infections. He is an active football player, but lately he complains of weakness and muscle cramps. His blood pressure for the last 3-4 years has always been borderline high and during this visit was as noted below.

Physical examination shows: Pulse 100/min, all peripheral pulsations are well felt. BP 150/100 mm Hg, Temp. 37.4 degrees C. He is pale. His growth is stunted. His cognitive function is normal and no focal neurological deficits are noted. Other systems are unremarkable. Laboratory examination is as follows:

Hemoglobin   13.5 g/dL

Hematocrit   42%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

White Blood Cells  8,000 mm3


Urinalysis: 

Protein     100 mg/24 h

Glucose       None

Red Blood Cells      None

White Blood Cells     None

Leukocyte Esterase   Negative

Nitrites     Negative


Chemistry: 

BUN   13.5 mg/dL

Creatinine  0.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.8 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  18.5 mEq/L

Chloride   112 mEq/l

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  3.2 mg/dL

Aldosterone  5 ng/mL

PRA    <1.0ng/dl/hr


Glucose   100 mg/dL

HbA1C    5.30%

S. Osmolality   282 mOsmol

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

ESR    9.8 mm/h


ABG: 

pH   7.25

PCO2  32 mm Hg

HCO3 16 mEq/L

PO2   90 mm Hg

USG  Normal size kidneys, no hydronephrosis 

Considering the history and the laboratory findings, which of the following is most likely the cause of hypertension in this patient?


A. Liddle's Syndrome 
B. Gordon's Syndrome 
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 
D. Glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism 
E. Mineralocorticoid receptor activating mutation 
The correct answer is B
Gordon’s syndrome

Explanation:

Gordon’s syndrome - Young male with hypertension, hyperkalemia, hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, normal renal function, low rennin, and low aldosterone is highly characteristic of Gordon’s syndrome. This syndrome is also known as pseudohypoaldosteronism type II. Recently it has been reported that Gordon’s syndrome is linked to chromosomes 1, 12, and 17. Hyperkalemia and hypertension in Gordon’s syndrome are caused by abnormalities in WNK kinases, proteins that are localized to the distal nephron and affect the thiazide-sensitive Na-Cl Cotransporter. Mutations affecting either WNK4 or WNK1 result in increased chloride reabsorption in the distal nephron, thereby reducing lumen electronegativity and lowering the force for potassium secretion. These mutations also result in decreased expression of the potassium channels through which potassium enters the collecting duct. Thus, mutant WNK4 increases sodium chloride reabsorption in the distal tubule and decreases potassium secretion in the collecting tubule resulting in sodium retention and decreased potassium excretion resulting in hypertension, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. The volume expansion leads to suppression of rennin and aldosterone. 

(Choice A) Liddle’s syndrome presents as hypertension in childhood. It is usually resistant to standard antihypertensive drugs. This is due to gain of function mutation at chromosome 16 affecting the beta or gamma subunit of ENaC channel in collecting duct of the nephron. This results in sodium retention and volume expansion causing hypertension and hypokalemia. The volume expansion leads to suppression of rennin and aldosterone. These patients will have hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, low rennin and low aldosterone. 

(Choice C) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia presents in childhood with hypertension and virilization in girls and precocious puberty in boys. The other features include primary amenorrhea, delayed sexual maturation, ambiguous genitalia, with clitoral enlargement in girls. The 11 beta hyroxylase (CYP11B1) and (17 alpha hydroxylase (CYP17) deficiencies lead to excess deoxycoticosterone which leads to hypertension through a mineralocorticoid action. Biochemically it is characterized by metabolic alkalosis, low rennin and low aldosterone.

(Choice D) Glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism (GRA) is also known as familial hyperaldosteronism type I. In this disorder there is a chimeric gene formed from portions of the 11-beta-hydroxylase gene (CYP11B2) and the aldosterone synthase gene (CYP11B2). Patients with GRA have ectopic aldosterone synthesis occurring in the zona - fasciculata under the direct influence of ACTH rather than the renin. GRA presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, low rennin and high aldosterone. GRA resembles a primary hyperladosterone state with excessive urinary potassium loss. Look for a clue of family history of CVA or brain haemorrhage in the stem of the question.

(Choice E) Mineralocorticoid receptor activating mutation is a very rare autosomal dominant disorder. The mutation lies in the mineralocorticoid receptor, which causes it to be activated by steroid lacing 21 –hyroxyl groups, such as progesterone and spironolactone. Both normally antagonize the receptor but have opposite effect on this mutant receptor. It usually present as early onset hypertension in females. It may get accelerated during pregnancy due to elevated levels of progesterone. Biochemically it is characterized by hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis low renin and low aldosterone.

Educational objective:

IF YOU KNOW THESE 5 POINTS FOR THESE 5-6 SYNDROMES YOU CAN ANSWER ALL NEPHROLOGY BOARD QUESTIONS ASKED ON THESE SYNDROMES:

Blood pressure - Normotension or hypertension
Potassium        - Hyperkalemia or hypokalemia
Acid-Base         - Acidosis or alkalosis
Renin                - Low or High
Aldosterone      - Low or High

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Last Modified: 01/25/2021

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TUTOR - Physiology
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165262
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A 28-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. His cousin brother has the same disease. He reports no symptoms. He has been using insulin pump using insulin Aspart. He has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor and uses carbohydrate count for boluses. He reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes particularly 2 hours into post lunch, but, manages by himself. He exercises at least at least 60 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 118/66 mmHg. His BMI is 23.2.  System examination is unremarkable.


His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.


Characteristic

Value

Hemoglobin

14.2 gm/L 

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr Potassium

4.4 mEq/L

Sr Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

136.8 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.9%

Sr Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

76 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY incorrect statement regarding hyperfiltration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyperfiltration is usually diagnosed when the GFR is more than 120 ml/min,which corresponds to a renal function that exceeds two standard deviation above mean GFR.
B. Renal hyper filtration usually precedes microalbuminuria in type 1 diabetes mellitus.
C. Renal hyper filtration is considered as a risk factor for future progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD) and end stage renal disease (ESRD) in type 1 DM.
D. eGFR equations like MDRD equation can be used predict hyper filtration.

The Correct Answer is Option D : eGFR equations like MDRD equation can be used predict hyper filtration.


Explanation:


Supra physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyper filtration  Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes. Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

Direct measurement of GFR is usually required to detect hyperfiltration because estimation equations, such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) usually underestimate the true GFR when it is normal or above normal. 

 

Option A : A definite cut off of GFR is lacking. However, renal hyper filtration is typically defined as a GFR of between 120 mL/min and 150 mL/min/1.73m2, or greater than 2 standard deviations above the mean GFR in normal, healthy individuals.

 

Option B: Hyper filtration in diabetes precedes the onset of albuminuria and/or decline in renal function, and predisposes to progressive nephron damage by increasing glomerular hydraulic pressure

 

Option C : Hyper filtration per se does not seem to fully explain adverse renal outcome, as the risk for ESRD in transplant donors is very low. However, in type 1 diabetes Rapid GFR decline is associated with renal hyper filtration and impaired GFR and may predict progressive DKD prior to loss of renal function.

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TUTOR - Physiology
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165263
  • 8 of 36
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A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

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TUTOR - Acid - Base
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165230
  • 9 of 36
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A 56 year-old male was brought to the emergency room with drowsiness and lethargy. He has been experiencing these for the last 2 days. He complains of a recent history of anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, He has diabetes mellitus and is on glimepiride 1 mg daily for the last 4 years. One week ago he had decreased vision with redness in his right eye. He was treated by his ophthalmologist with drops which seem to have resolved the problem. He currently takes cholecalciferol weekly for osteoporosis. On physical examination his pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and temperature is 97.7 F. The patient appears drowsy but shows no focal neurological deficits. Review of systems is otherwise unremarkable. Urinalysis is positive for glucose and negative for proteinuria, WBCs and RBC casts. A 24 hour urinary protein collection is significant for proteinuria of 3.5 g/day. Further labs reveal:

Hemoglobin  8 gm%

Hct    24%

MCV   85

WBC   7800/ml

PMN   80%

Lymphocytes  20%

ESR   80 mm/hr

Na    145 mEq/L

BUN   80 mg/dL

Cr    1.8 mg/dL

CL    115 mEq/L

HCO3   25 mEq/L

Uric acid   5.8 mg/dL

Ca    14 mg/dl

PO4    2.8 mg/dL

Total Protein  7.8 gm/dL

Albumin   3.5 mg/dL.

Vitamin D  40 ng/ml

PTH   10 pg/ml

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his hypercalcemia?


A.  Vitamin D toxicity
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C.  Multiple myeloma.
D. Sarcoidosis
The correct answer is C

Multiple myeloma

Explanation:

Multiple myeloma is due to proliferation of plasma cells producing a monoclonal immunoglobulin.

The diagnosis of multiple myeloma is supported by the presence of many of the following factors:
  • Advanced Age
  • Backache and Bone pain
  • Anemia
  • High ESR
  • Urine protein negative by dipstick and positive by other tests is characteristic of light chain proteinuria.
  • High Total protein
  • Low anion gap
  • Hypercalcemia and hyperuricemia favors the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.

(Choice A) This patient has received Vitamin D treatment. Vitamin D toxicity can give rise to hypercalcemia. Serum vitamin D3 levels will be high. PTH will be low.  Patient’s vitamin D level of 40ng/ml (normal range is 30-100ng/ml) does not favor Vitamin D toxicity.

(Choice B) Primary hyperparathyroidism is the commonest cause of hypercalcemia among outpatients. It is characterized by elevated PTH. Patient’s PTH level of 10 pg/ml rules out primary hyperparathyroidism.

(Choice D) Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder of unknown cause. Hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria in sarcoidosis is associated with high vitamin D levels. This patient has low vitamin D levels and hence it is unlikely to be the cause. Also there is no history or findings to suggest sarcoidosis.

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165242
  • 10 of 36
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A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
E. Diabetic nephropathy

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 16524
  • 11 of 36
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Which of the following antihypertensive medications resulted in better blood pressure control and cardiovascular outcomes when combined with an ACE inhibitor?


A. Beta blocker 
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Angiotensin Receptor Blocker 
D. Diuretics 
The correct answer is B
Calcium channel blocker 

Explanation:

The ACCOMPLISH trial has clearly shown that that an ACE inhibitor combined with a Calcium channel blocker (amlodipine) is better than an ACE inhibitor combined with a diuretic (hydrochlorothiazide). This study did not involve beta blockers or angiotensin receptor blockers. 

The ACCOMPLISH trial was the first major clinical trial addressing the issue of combination therapy in 11,000 patients who were at high cardiovascular risk (with prior CAD, diabetes, and/or CKD). The patients were randomly assigned to combination therapy with benazepril (20 mg/day) combined with either amlodipine (5 mg/day) or Hydrochlorothiazide (12.5 mg/day).

The mean blood pressure was significantly lower in the Benazepril + Amlodipine group, with the primary end point also significant in this group. There was a similar benefit with the treatment combination of benazepril-amlodipine in the secondary end point of cardiovascular death compared to the group treated with a combination of amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide. 

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TUTOR - Kidney Transplantation
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165261
  • 12 of 36
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50-year-old female patient whos group B is being evaluated for kidney transplant surgery. She had ESRD secondary to analgesic nephropathy and is on hemodialysis for last 5 years. She has had multiple sensitization events in the form of 3 pregnancies and several blood transfusions. Her current calculated PRA against class I antigen is 97% and against class II antigen is 99%. She has been enrolled in the national highly sensitized recipient program.

Her husband who is blood group matched came forward as a potential kidney donor but she had positive Flow B and T Cell Cross match against him. Single antigen bead assay demonstrated that she has donor specific antibodies against class II across DQB*15 and DPB*14. This transplant did not materialize as patient declined desensitization protocol. Now her younger brother comes forward as a potential donor. He is blood group A and the flow B and T cell cross match is negative with no demonstrable donor specific antibodies against this donor.Patient wants to know more about ABO incompatible transplant.


Which of the following statements about the ABO incompatible transplant is correct?


A. Three-year graft survival is inferior to blood group compatible transplants.
B. The infectious and bleeding complications post ABOI kidney transplant are the same as blood matched kidney transplant.
C. All patients undergoing ABOI transplant need to undergo desensitization using IVIg, Plasma exchange, Rituximab irrespective of their donor/recipient pair Anti ABO titers for optimal outcomes.
D. C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process in the absence of allograft dysfunction.

Correct answer: Option D: C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process.


Explanation:


Choice A: Three-year graft survival is inferior to blood group compatible transplants is incorrect A comprehensive database analysis of 1420 ABOI living donor (LD) kidney transplants performed in 101 centers from 2005 to 2012 compared graft and patient survival to a matched cohort of ABO-compatible transplant recipients. Three-year graft and patient survival were ultimately identical. 1


Choice B: The infectious and bleeding complications post ABOI kidney transplant as same as blood matched kidney transplant is also incorrect. Using USRDS and Medicare data from 2000–2007, 119 ABOI (non-A2 donor) transplant recipients were identified. Compared with ABO-compatible recipients, the risks of infectious and hemorrhagic complications were significantly higher, with a 2.2-fold higher risk of pneumonia, a 3.5-fold higher risk of wound infections, a 56% higher risk of pyelonephritis, and a nearly 2- fold higher risk of hemorrhage 2


Choice C: All patients undergoing ABOI transplant need to undergo desensitization using IVIg, Plasma exchange, Rituximab irrespective of their donor/recipient pair Anti ABO titers for optimal outcomes is also an incorrect answer. Historically, ABOI transplantation has been successful when performed after desensitization with plasmapheresis, intravenous Ig (IVIG), rituximab, and/or splenectomy to achieve ABO IgG antibody titers 1:4. A recent publication demonstrated that these intensified treatments might not be necessary in donor/recipient pairs who have low-moderate titer ABO incompatibility 3


Choice D: C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process in the absence of allograft dysfunction is the correct answer C4d staining is not an uncommon feature seen in the protocol biopsies done in ABOI kidney transplant recipients. In the absence of allograft dysfunction, the C4d staining has no clinical relevance and is just a part of the graft accommodation.

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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165233
  • 13 of 36
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A 25 year-old female is referred by her primary care provider for evaluation of hypertension and hypokalemia. The primary care provider has already started her on oral potassium, despite therapy her Potassium being 2.8 meq/L. Her blood pressure despite treatment with amlodipine and Lisinopril 154/96 mm of Hg. There is no renal bruit. Systemic and fundus examinations are normal. Her mother was also diagnosed with hypertension at an early age. Her brother died of a cerebrovascular accident 2 years ago. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Na   140 

Potassium 2.8 

Chloride   100 

HCO3    26

BUN   15 

Creatinine  0.8 

Glucose    110

TSH and Cortisol are normal

ACTH    elevated

Renin   0.7 (Low)

Aldosterone  48 (elevated)


Urinalysis:

Sodium   240 mEq/D

Potassium  98 mEq/D

Urinary 18-OH Cortisol and 18-oxocortisol are elevated.

The most appropriate treatment for this patient is:

A. Steroids
B. Spironolactone 
C. Steroids + Spironolactone
D. Amiloride 
The correct answer is C

Steroids + Spironolactone

Explanation:

This patient has (GRA) – Glucocorticoid Remediable Aldosteronism. These are typically young patients presenting with hypertension and hypokalemia. There is strong family history of early onset hypertension along with a history of fatal CVA or hemorrhagic strokes. These patients typically have low Renin and high Aldosterone mimicking a state of primary hyperaldosteronism. Because of this they have high urinary potassium losses as manifested in this patient. (Urinary potassium of more than 40mEq/D is considered increased losses). Increased ACTH and 18-OH cortisol further support the diagnosis of GRA.

Steroids alone are used in the treatment of Pregnancy associated mineralocorticoid excess and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Steroids alone in this patient will suppress ACTH but this patient also needs an aldosterone antagonist for the hyperldosterone state and to reduce urinary potassium losses. Hence, the right answer is steroids plus spironolactone.

Spironolactone alone is not sufficient, as steroids are needed to suppress the increased ACTH state. 

Amiloride blocks the EnaC channel in Liddle’s syndrome.

PLEASE NOTE THAT "GRA" IS A FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTION IN NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAMS

PLEASE REVIEW GLUCOCORTICOID REMEDIABLE ALDOSTERONISM WELL. 

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TUTOR - CKD / ESRD / MBD
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167340
  • 14 of 36
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A 40 year-old pleasant African man with ESRD secondary to FSGS started automated peritoneal dialysis. His prescription includes 2.5 L and 3 exchanges over 8 hours at night with a last fill of 2 L. He has a urine output of 1000 mL/day. A typical ultrafiltration on cycler is used at 1000 mL. Average drain volume of the day dwell was 1500 mL prior to going on the cycler at night. 

He came with complains of lower abdominal wall edema extending to the scrotum over the past 5 days. Without any change in the dialysis prescription, his drain volume before going on the cycler dropped to 900 mL, and the ultrafiltration volume on the cycler came down to 100 mL. He reports no pain with fill or drain. 

What is the next step?


A. Chest X ray PA and lateral view 
B. Drain the fluid middle of the day to reduce the dwell time
C. PD catheter manipulation
D. Abdominal CT scan with contrast in the dialysate
E. Switch to hemodialysis 
E. Pleurodesis 
The correct answer is D 

Abdominal CT scan with contrast in the dialysate

Explanation:

Typical ultrafiltration failure from peritoneal membrane failure presents gradually. More frequently, we see an apparent ultrafiltration failure from other reasons. 

Catheter malfunction can present with problem with inflow, outflow or both. A kink in the catheter poses problem with inflow and outflow. 

Omentum or blood clots clogging the catheter can cause only outflow problem. Fibrin clots, constipation with loaded rectum, and displaced PD catheter also cause outflow obstruction. X ray KUB is very helpful in diagnosing displaced catheter.   

FLUID LEAK leak into the abdominal wall causes swelling in the lower abdomen extending down to the scrotum or mons pubis and decrease in the drain volume. Usually this can be treated by temporarily doing low volume PD or transferring to HD for about 6 weeks. Such leaks starting few years after initiating PD usually do not respond to this approach and often requires placement of a new PD catheter.

A patent tunica vaginalis testes will cause UNILATERAL OR BILATERAL SCROTAL SWELLING without much swelling of the abdominal wall sometimes associated with decrease in the drain volume. A CT scan of the abdomen with ‘IV’ contrast into the peritoneal fluid can help in diagnosing the leak into the abdominal wall and scrotal leak. Patent tunica vaginalis testes requires surgery. Generally hemodialysis is not required after the surgery and low volume peritoneal dialysis can be resumed. This patient presents with signs of leak of fluid into the abdominal wall. A chest X ray is not required, so (Choice A) is wrong.

Draining during the middle of the day helps if the membrane is very permeable with very high D/P creatinine ratio on PET. This does not help in abdominal wall leak of dialysate. Therefore, (Choice B) is also wrong.

PD catheter manipulation (Choice C) is wrong because this patient does not have displaced PD catheter from the information given.

(Choice D) is the correct answer. If the clinical presentation is very convincing, most patients are treated with reducing the dialysate volume and if possible keeping the abdomen dry during the day. Sometimes these patients need to be switched to hemodialysis for 4-6 weeks before PD is resumed. Hence temporary switch to HD would be a correct answer, but unqualified switch to HD as is stated in answer E would be a wrong choice. Therefore, (Choice E) is the wrong or less appropriate answer.

ABDOMINAL ADHESIONS cause decrease in the drain volume as well and require surgical treatment with low volume PD or temporary HD after that.

DIAPHRAGMATIC LEAK into the pleural space presents with cough and shortness of breath without peripheral signs of fluid overload few weeks after starting peritoneal dialysis (not the presentation in this patient). Usually, such patients present with right sided pleural effusion clinically and on chest X ray PA and lateral view. These patients can be treated with temporary transfer to HD, pleuridesis and return back to PD 4-6 weeks later. Permanent switch to hemoidialysis without pleurodesis is another option.


TREATMENT OPTIONS OF VARIOUS ABDOMINAL/CHEST PROBLEMS AS MENTIONED ABOVE IN PATIENTS ON PERITONEAL DIALYSIS IS FREQUENTLY TESTED ON BOARDS. PLEASE KNOW THE TREATMENT OPTIONS.


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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165246
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A 32 year-old male is brought to renal clinic with history of hematuria, oedema feet, and puffiness of face. He gives a history of fever and sore throat a week ago. He also complains of breathlessness on exertion and oliguria. Physical examination shows: Pulse 100/min, BP 150/100 mm Hg, and Temp. 37.4 C. He is pale. He has puffiness of face and oedema feet. Systemic examination-unremarkable. Laboratory examination is as follows:

Hb   10.5 g/d

Hct   34%

Platelet 250,000 mm3

WBC  8,000 mm3

Differential count P 80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR  9.8 mm/h


Urinalysis:

Protein   3000 mg/24 h

Glucose   None

RBC   50-60/hpf Dysmorphic

WBC   occasional

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites   Negati

BUN   40 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  4.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  25.5 mEq/L

S. protein  5.5 g/dl

S. Albumin  2.5 g/dl

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  3.2 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C 3    Low

C4     normal

HBsAg /HIV   Neg

ANA    Neg

Kidney Biopsy: Shows enlarged Glomeruli, lobular accentuation, mesangial hypercellularity, endo-capillary proliferation and double contour along the capillary wall. IF shows bright C3 in mesangium and capillary wall with absent immunoglobulin staining. 

Electron Microscopy: Suggestive of dense deposits.

What is the BEST treatment option for this patient?


A. Plasma exchange + Rituximab 
B. Rituximab 
C. Eculuzimab
D. Cyclophosphamide + Steroids 
The correct answer is C

Eculuzimab

Explanation:

This patient has nephritic-nephrotic picture with low C3. The Kidney biopsy along with clinical presentation is suggestive of MPGN. Negative Immunoglobulins along with positive C3 staining narrows it down to DDD (DENSE DEPOSIT DISEASE) or C3-GN (C3-GN GLOMERULONEPHRITIS)

DDD or Dense deposit disease is best treated with Eculuzimab. 
Rituximab has not been found to be useful in DDD or C3-GN. 

ECULUZIMAB : has been shown to be useful in:
1. DDD
2. Atypical HUS – used along with plasma exchange. If using Eculuzimab give meningococcal vaccine or give penicillin till the vaccine becomes effective.

However, (additional information not pertaining to this question)

RITUXIMAB : has been shown to be useful in:
1. ANCA vasculitis (can be used in induction or relapse – RAVE TRIAL)
2. Wegeners
3. HCV cryoglobulinemia
TTP

***** TREATMENT OPTIONS IN GLOMERULONEPHRITIS WITH RITUXIMAB AND ECULUZIMAB ARE FREQUENTLY TESTED CONCEPTS IN NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAMS. PLEASE REVIEW THESE IN DETAIL.*****


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TUTOR - CKD / ESRD / MBD
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 1673177
  • 16 of 36
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All of the following are helpful in predicting AV Graft stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Hyperpulsatility of the AV Graft
B. Reduced pulse augmentation
C. Increased bleeding and clots 
D. Decreased KT/V
E. Decreased Blood Flow rate
E. Surveillance of the graft
The correct answer is F
Surveillance of the graft

Explanation:

Intra-graft or venous outflow stenosis – A strong pulse in the AV graft - HYPERPULSATILITY suggests an increase in resistance as occurs with a venous stenotic lesion. The intensity of this pulse is directly proportional to the severity of the stenosis. For this reason, in an AV graft Hyperpulsatility can be considered as an indicator of impending AV graft stenosis.

Arterial stenosis – REDUCED PULSE AUGMENTATION suggests inflow stenosis due to stenosis of the arterial anastomosis or of the feeding artery. Although pulse augmentation is commonly performed, it is less sensitive for the detection of inflow stenosis in AV grafts compared with AV fistulas.

INCREASED BLOOD CLOTS, DECREASED KT/V, and DECREASED BLOOD FLOW RATE are all suggestive of impending AV graft stenosis. Often patients are seen with dilated, collateral veins over the arm and chest wall (very important to examine your hemodialysis patients after taking off their shirts) suggestive of central venous stenosis - The classic physical finding in a patient with a significant central venous stenosis is diffuse upper extremity edema. Subcutaneous collateral veins are frequently evident over the chest. Swelling and collateral veins are caused by generalized venous hypertension of the extremity, which occurs in central, but is rare with peripheral lesions. 

SURVEILLANCE  does not predict AV Graft stenosis. It is not a sensitive or specific modality to detect the same accurately.

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TUTOR - Kidney Transplantation
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167345
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Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity in a renal transplant recipient is associated with all the below renal biopsy findings EXCEPT:

(THIS PICTURE BELOW IN LOW POWER SHOWS ONE OF THE CLASSICAL FINDINGS IN CSA TOXICITY)


A. Interstitial Fibrosis  
B. Tubular atrophy 
C. Endothelial cell swelling 
D. Glomerular thrombin deposits
E. Glomerular basement membrane thickening 
E. Double contours of the GB 
The correct answer is D

Glomerular thrombin deposits

Explanation:

In a patient with suspected cyclosporine nephrotoxicity, the renal biopsy reveals an obliterative arteriolopathy (which is classically seen in afferent renal arterioles) suggesting primary endothelial damage and subsequently endothelial cell swelling which may persist for months in a patient with elevated cyclosporine blood levels. This is also associated with thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern. In fact according to BANF thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern is most suggestive of chronic allograft nephropathy (CAN) also called as TRANSPLANT GLOMERULOPATHY. 

The other renal biopsy findings of cyclosporine nephrotoxicity include ischemic collapse or scarring of the glomeruli, vacuolization of the tubules, FSGS, and focal areas of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis (producing a picture of “ZEBRA” or "STRIPED" fibrosis) These changes are seen with both low-dose and higher-dose cyclosporine therapy, although they seem to co-relate earlier with higher doses. 

(THE ABOVE PICTURE IN THE UPPER HALF SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY APPEARING DARK AND REDDISH ALTERNATING WITH LIGHT BLUE AREAS OF INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS GIVING A "STRIPED" OR "ZEBRA" APPEARANCE)

THE PICTURE BELOW SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY, VACUOLIZATION OF THE TUBULES AND ISCHEMIC CHANGES:


Mild arteriolar hyalinosis at six months appears to be associated with high doses of cyclosporine and was reversible. However, after more than a year irreversible severe arteriolar hyalinosis and glomerulosclerosis were observed, despite decreased doses and trough levels of cyclosporine.

Glomerular thrombin deposits are typically seen in patients with Lupus, anti phospholipid syndromes and other vasculitides. It is typically not seen in cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.

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TUTOR - Tubular / Cystic / Miscellaneous
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167320
  • 18 of 36
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A 25 year-old male comes to the physician complaining of flank pain and hematuria.  He says the pain is constant and dull. There is no frequency, urgency or dysuria.  He has a history of mental retardation and seizures. On physical exam his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, and his pulse is 80 bpm. He has multiple yellow papules across his nose and cheeks and numerous areas of blanched skin spots on his face. A 2-3 cm hypopigmented macule is noted on the right arm. CT scan of the head was done as patient presented with seizures. CT head was reported normal. CT scan of the abdomen shows bilateral hypodense fat containing renal masses and cysts. 


What is the MOST likely diagnosis associated with these findings?

A.  Von Hippel Lindau
B.  Sturge Weber Syndrome
C. Tuberous Sclerosis
D.  Osler Weber Rendu
E.  Neurofibromatosis type 2
The correct answer is C
Tuberous Sclerosis

Explanation:
This patient’s skin lesions are consistent with sebaceous adenomas. The findings of mental retardation, sebaceous adenomas and seizures are most consistent with tuberous sclerosis. Tuberous sclerosis is associated with renal angiomyolipomas and renal cysts. Abdominal CT can diagnose these tumors as the density of fat is less than that of water.  In patients with flank pain and hematuria there is an increased likely of co-existing renal cysts. Based on presentation and findings this is tuberous sclerosis, the other choices are less likely as explained below.

(Choice A) Bilateral renal cell carcinoma is associated with Von Hippel Lindau disease. Imaging is not suggestive of renal cell cancer.
(Choice B) Leptomeningeal Angiomas are cerebral malformations commonly found in Sturge-Weber Syndrome. CT head is normal in this patient.
(Choice D) Osler Weber Rendu is an autosomal dominant disease associated with telangectasias of the mucosal surfaces as well as AVM’s in the brain, GI tract and lung. Again clinical presentation and imaging is not suggestive of this diagnosis.
(Choice E) Neurofibromatosis type 2 is an autosomal dominant condition associated with acoustic neuromas, gliomas and ependymomas. Skin shows neurifibromas but other associations favor the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis.

 ASSOCIATED FINDINGS IN TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS -- 
(This patient has majority of these as bolded below)
 o      Bilateral renal angiomyolipomas (Fat containing renal masses on CT scan)
 o      Renal Cysts
 o      Astrocytomas
 o      Cortical tubers
 o      Ash-leaf spots on skin
 o      Sebaceous adenomas on face
 o     Seizures
 o      Mental retardation

IMPORTANT TOPIC FROM RENAL BOARD POINT OF VIEW

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Last Modified: 12/30/2017

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TUTOR - Acid - Base
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167322
  • 19 of 36
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A 15 year-old boy is brought to the ER by his foster mother who states that when she got home from work she noticed he was acting very strange. He had slurred speech and seemed confused. He appeared to be very uncoordinated and she was not sure if he fell or hit his head. She states that he is somewhat a troubled boy but doesn’t know much about his history as he has been in and out of the foster care system out of state. On physical exam, he is tachycardic and has tachypnoea. Pupils are dilated, but there is no nystagmus. A fundoscopic exam shows hyperemia of the optic disk. He is relatively uncooperative but not aggressive or hostile. When asked about suicidal thoughts he responds only with inaudible mumbling. His foster mother left for work 10 hours prior and assumed he left for school. She is not sure when these symptoms began or what may have initiated them. P is 105/ min, BP is 140/90 mm Hg, RR is 28/min, and T is 97.1 F. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Na   135 mEq/L                                            

K   5.0 mEq/L

CL   105 mEq/L

BUN  19 mg/dL

Cr   1.3 mg/dL         

HCO3  8 mEq/L  

Glucose  100 mg/dL         

pH   7.3          

pO2   90 mmHg

pCO2  22 mmHg

Measured serum osmolarity  320 mmol/L

What is the next step in management?

A.  Gastric lavage
B.  N-acetylcystiene and activated charcoal
C. Fomepizole 
D. Fomepizole and Hemodialysis 
E.  Obtain serum levels of salycylate, methanol and ethylene glycol levels
The correct answer is D
Hemodialysis and fomepizole

Explanation: 
While this patient's case may appear to be vague, there are three strong indicators for the most likely diagnosis:
1)    This patient has metabolic acidosis with profound Osmolar gap, which is a strong indicator of volatile alcohol related products. 
2)    Hyperemia of the optic disk (or other ocular symptoms) in addition to profound anion gap should make methanol toxicity a top differential diagnosis.  
3)    In addition to the serum anion gap, there is a serum Osmolar gap. (Measured Osm – Calculated Osm) where:

Calculated Osmolarity = 2(Na) + BUN/2.8 + Glu/18

***Anytime there is an osmolar gap in metabolic acidosis, your differentials can be narrowed down to volatile alcohol related substances. ***  --------------->    IMPORTANT ABIM BOARD POINT

The best treatment for methanol and ethylene glycol is to remove the toxic byproducts from circulation. The definitive therapy is Hemodialysis. Fomepizole is given to block alcohol dehydrogenase, thereby stopping the formation of toxic byproducts. However, it does not remove them from circulation, only dialysis can do this.

(Choice A) Gastric lavage is almost never the correct answer, especially with ingestion of an unknown substance. Caustic substances can cause further damage on the way out with the use of gastric lavage. Esophageal perforation is potentially a fatal risk.

(Choice B) N-acetyl cystiene is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity however timing is important and drug levels should be drawn first to determine the need for treatment. If ingestion occurred more than 24 hours earlier, treatment has no effect and is therefore not given.

(Choice C, D) Refer to the explanation section above.

(Choice E) When suspicion for methanol poisoning is high, treatment should not wait for diagnosis confirmation. The presence of ocular involvement is an ominous sign, and the risk of blindness is increased. The benefits outweigh the risk of treating before confirming diagnosis in this case.




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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165243
  • 20 of 36
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You are the nephrologist on call. The  ER calls you for an 18 year-old female who complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Her serum sodium is 116 mEq/L and Serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. On physical examination the patient is drowsy, Pulse is 126/min, BP is 90/60 mm of Hg, and RR is  32/min. Her chest is clear. Her heart sounds are normal, and no murmur is visible. The patient is drowsy but arousable and there was no focal neurological deficit. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Hb    16 gm/dl 

WBC   12,800/cmm 

Polymorph  46% 

Lymphocytes  16% 

Eosinophils  4%

Monocytes  4%

Platelets   2,40,000/cmm.

CL    70 mEq/L

BUN  10 mg/dl

Creatinine  0.5 mg/dl

Na    116 mEq/L

K    5.8 mEq/L


Urinalysis:

pH    6.4

Protein  trace

Glucose  absent

microscopic occasional WBCs & RBCs

Urinary Na  90 mEq/L

Urinary K         20 mEq/L

ABG    

PH                   7.32

PCO2   36 

HCO3   20 mEq/L

PaO2   92

O2 saturation  98%

S. Cortisol  6.00 mg/dl

TSH   3.5 IU/m (Normal 0-5 IU/m ).

Both plasma Renin and Aldosterone are high. 

Which of the following conditions is most likely with these findings?


A. Type 4 RTA 
B. Pseudo-hypo-aldosteronism Type 1 
C. Gordon's syndrome
D.  Diarrhea
The correct answer is B
 
Pseudo hypo-aldosteronism type 1

Explanation:

This patient has hyponatremia with high urinary sodium. High serum potassium, low urinary potassium, and normal adrenal function. The serum aldosterone level is high, suggesting resistance to aldosterone action of target organ. These findings are characteristic of Pseudohypo aldosteronism type1 (PHA Type1)

PHA type1 is a rare hereditary disorder, characterized by generalized resistance to the action of aldosterone. It presents with 
1. Salt wasting 
2. Hypovolemia 
3. Normotension
4. Metabolic acidosis 
5. Hyperkalemia
6. High Renin and Aldosterone.  

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 6 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 1

These are two different modes of inheritance:
1] Autosomal recessive.
2] Autosomal dominant.

Autosomal recessive affects the epithelial sodium channel and other target organs like kidney, colon, and sweat gland. There is a down regulation of the sodium channels and decreased sodium transport.

Autosomal dominant or sporadic form is due to heterozygous mutations in the NR3C2 gene coding for mineralocorticoid receptor. This is milder form than autosomal recessive disease in which only kidney is affected. The disease often improves with age.

Treatment consists of high salt diet. This prevents volume depletion and by enhancing sodium delivery to the distal tubules, potassium exertion increases, thereby bringing down the serum potassium. 

High dose Fludrocortisone (1 to 2 mg/day ), or Carbenoxolone is indicated if high salt intake is ineffective or not tolerated.

(Choice A) Type IV RTA will have low aldesterone and low renin level. Therefore, that is not the likely answer.

(Choice D) Diarrhea will have metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia and Net urine charge will be negative. This patient has positive Net urine charge with hyperkalemia which rules out diarrhea as a cause.

(Choice C)  = PHA TYPE 2 (Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2) OR = Gordon’s syndrome is characterized by:
 1. Hypertension 
 2. Hyperkalaemia 
 3. Metabolic acidosis
 4. Low plasma Renin and Aldosterone. This is due to mutations in WNK kinases 1 and 4. These mutations result in increased  chloride reabsorption with sodium retention thereby resulting in hypertension.

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 4 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 2 or GORDON's SYNDROME

IF YOU KNOW THESE 10 POINTS OF PSEUDOHYPOALDOSTERONISM TYPE 1 & 2 THAN YOU CAN ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON PHA 1, 2 AND GORDON'S SYNDROME WHICH ARE GOING TO BE ASKED FOR SURE ON THE BOARDS.

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167274
  • 21 of 36
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A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

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Last Modified: 03/07/2021

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165247
  • 22 of 36
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A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


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TUTOR - CKD / ESRD / MBD
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165264
  • 23 of 36
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A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165215
  • 24 of 36
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An 18 year-old male is brought to the renal clinic for evaluation of hypertension. There is no history of edema of the feet, puffiness of the face, hematuria, oliguria ,or recurrent urinary tract infections. He is an active football player, but lately he complains of weakness and muscle cramps. His blood pressure for the last 3-4 years has always been borderline high and during this visit was as noted below.

Physical examination shows: Pulse 100/min, all peripheral pulsations are well felt. BP 150/100 mm Hg, Temp. 37.4 degrees C. He is pale. His growth is stunted. His cognitive function is normal and no focal neurological deficits are noted. Other systems are unremarkable. Laboratory examination is as follows:

Hemoglobin   13.5 g/dL

Hematocrit   42%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

White Blood Cells  8,000 mm3


Urinalysis: 

Protein     100 mg/24 h

Glucose       None

Red Blood Cells      None

White Blood Cells     None

Leukocyte Esterase   Negative

Nitrites     Negative


Chemistry: 

BUN   13.5 mg/dL

Creatinine  0.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.8 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  18.5 mEq/L

Chloride   112 mEq/l

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  3.2 mg/dL

Aldosterone  5 ng/mL

PRA    <1.0ng/dl/hr


Glucose   100 mg/dL

HbA1C    5.30%

S. Osmolality   282 mOsmol

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

ESR    9.8 mm/h


ABG: 

pH   7.25

PCO2  32 mm Hg

HCO3 16 mEq/L

PO2   90 mm Hg

USG  Normal size kidneys, no hydronephrosis 

Considering the history and the laboratory findings, which of the following is most likely the cause of hypertension in this patient?


A. Liddle's Syndrome 
B. Gordon's Syndrome 
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 
D. Glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism 
E. Mineralocorticoid receptor activating mutation 
The correct answer is B
Gordon’s syndrome

Explanation:

Gordon’s syndrome - Young male with hypertension, hyperkalemia, hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, normal renal function, low rennin, and low aldosterone is highly characteristic of Gordon’s syndrome. This syndrome is also known as pseudohypoaldosteronism type II. Recently it has been reported that Gordon’s syndrome is linked to chromosomes 1, 12, and 17. Hyperkalemia and hypertension in Gordon’s syndrome are caused by abnormalities in WNK kinases, proteins that are localized to the distal nephron and affect the thiazide-sensitive Na-Cl Cotransporter. Mutations affecting either WNK4 or WNK1 result in increased chloride reabsorption in the distal nephron, thereby reducing lumen electronegativity and lowering the force for potassium secretion. These mutations also result in decreased expression of the potassium channels through which potassium enters the collecting duct. Thus, mutant WNK4 increases sodium chloride reabsorption in the distal tubule and decreases potassium secretion in the collecting tubule resulting in sodium retention and decreased potassium excretion resulting in hypertension, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. The volume expansion leads to suppression of rennin and aldosterone. 

(Choice A) Liddle’s syndrome presents as hypertension in childhood. It is usually resistant to standard antihypertensive drugs. This is due to gain of function mutation at chromosome 16 affecting the beta or gamma subunit of ENaC channel in collecting duct of the nephron. This results in sodium retention and volume expansion causing hypertension and hypokalemia. The volume expansion leads to suppression of rennin and aldosterone. These patients will have hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, low rennin and low aldosterone. 

(Choice C) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia presents in childhood with hypertension and virilization in girls and precocious puberty in boys. The other features include primary amenorrhea, delayed sexual maturation, ambiguous genitalia, with clitoral enlargement in girls. The 11 beta hyroxylase (CYP11B1) and (17 alpha hydroxylase (CYP17) deficiencies lead to excess deoxycoticosterone which leads to hypertension through a mineralocorticoid action. Biochemically it is characterized by metabolic alkalosis, low rennin and low aldosterone.

(Choice D) Glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism (GRA) is also known as familial hyperaldosteronism type I. In this disorder there is a chimeric gene formed from portions of the 11-beta-hydroxylase gene (CYP11B2) and the aldosterone synthase gene (CYP11B2). Patients with GRA have ectopic aldosterone synthesis occurring in the zona - fasciculata under the direct influence of ACTH rather than the renin. GRA presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, low rennin and high aldosterone. GRA resembles a primary hyperladosterone state with excessive urinary potassium loss. Look for a clue of family history of CVA or brain haemorrhage in the stem of the question.

(Choice E) Mineralocorticoid receptor activating mutation is a very rare autosomal dominant disorder. The mutation lies in the mineralocorticoid receptor, which causes it to be activated by steroid lacing 21 –hyroxyl groups, such as progesterone and spironolactone. Both normally antagonize the receptor but have opposite effect on this mutant receptor. It usually present as early onset hypertension in females. It may get accelerated during pregnancy due to elevated levels of progesterone. Biochemically it is characterized by hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis low renin and low aldosterone.

Educational objective:

IF YOU KNOW THESE 5 POINTS FOR THESE 5-6 SYNDROMES YOU CAN ANSWER ALL NEPHROLOGY BOARD QUESTIONS ASKED ON THESE SYNDROMES:

Blood pressure - Normotension or hypertension
Potassium        - Hyperkalemia or hypokalemia
Acid-Base         - Acidosis or alkalosis
Renin                - Low or High
Aldosterone      - Low or High

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TUTOR - Physiology
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165262
  • 25 of 36
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A 28-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. His cousin brother has the same disease. He reports no symptoms. He has been using insulin pump using insulin Aspart. He has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor and uses carbohydrate count for boluses. He reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes particularly 2 hours into post lunch, but, manages by himself. He exercises at least at least 60 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 118/66 mmHg. His BMI is 23.2.  System examination is unremarkable.


His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.


Characteristic

Value

Hemoglobin

14.2 gm/L 

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr Potassium

4.4 mEq/L

Sr Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

136.8 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.9%

Sr Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

76 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY incorrect statement regarding hyperfiltration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyperfiltration is usually diagnosed when the GFR is more than 120 ml/min,which corresponds to a renal function that exceeds two standard deviation above mean GFR.
B. Renal hyper filtration usually precedes microalbuminuria in type 1 diabetes mellitus.
C. Renal hyper filtration is considered as a risk factor for future progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD) and end stage renal disease (ESRD) in type 1 DM.
D. eGFR equations like MDRD equation can be used predict hyper filtration.

The Correct Answer is Option D : eGFR equations like MDRD equation can be used predict hyper filtration.


Explanation:


Supra physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyper filtration  Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes. Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

Direct measurement of GFR is usually required to detect hyperfiltration because estimation equations, such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) usually underestimate the true GFR when it is normal or above normal. 

 

Option A : A definite cut off of GFR is lacking. However, renal hyper filtration is typically defined as a GFR of between 120 mL/min and 150 mL/min/1.73m2, or greater than 2 standard deviations above the mean GFR in normal, healthy individuals.

 

Option B: Hyper filtration in diabetes precedes the onset of albuminuria and/or decline in renal function, and predisposes to progressive nephron damage by increasing glomerular hydraulic pressure

 

Option C : Hyper filtration per se does not seem to fully explain adverse renal outcome, as the risk for ESRD in transplant donors is very low. However, in type 1 diabetes Rapid GFR decline is associated with renal hyper filtration and impaired GFR and may predict progressive DKD prior to loss of renal function.

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TUTOR - Physiology
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165263
  • 26 of 36
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A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

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TUTOR - Acid - Base
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165230
  • 27 of 36
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A 56 year-old male was brought to the emergency room with drowsiness and lethargy. He has been experiencing these for the last 2 days. He complains of a recent history of anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, He has diabetes mellitus and is on glimepiride 1 mg daily for the last 4 years. One week ago he had decreased vision with redness in his right eye. He was treated by his ophthalmologist with drops which seem to have resolved the problem. He currently takes cholecalciferol weekly for osteoporosis. On physical examination his pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and temperature is 97.7 F. The patient appears drowsy but shows no focal neurological deficits. Review of systems is otherwise unremarkable. Urinalysis is positive for glucose and negative for proteinuria, WBCs and RBC casts. A 24 hour urinary protein collection is significant for proteinuria of 3.5 g/day. Further labs reveal:

Hemoglobin  8 gm%

Hct    24%

MCV   85

WBC   7800/ml

PMN   80%

Lymphocytes  20%

ESR   80 mm/hr

Na    145 mEq/L

BUN   80 mg/dL

Cr    1.8 mg/dL

CL    115 mEq/L

HCO3   25 mEq/L

Uric acid   5.8 mg/dL

Ca    14 mg/dl

PO4    2.8 mg/dL

Total Protein  7.8 gm/dL

Albumin   3.5 mg/dL.

Vitamin D  40 ng/ml

PTH   10 pg/ml

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his hypercalcemia?


A.  Vitamin D toxicity
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C.  Multiple myeloma.
D. Sarcoidosis
The correct answer is C

Multiple myeloma

Explanation:

Multiple myeloma is due to proliferation of plasma cells producing a monoclonal immunoglobulin.

The diagnosis of multiple myeloma is supported by the presence of many of the following factors:
  • Advanced Age
  • Backache and Bone pain
  • Anemia
  • High ESR
  • Urine protein negative by dipstick and positive by other tests is characteristic of light chain proteinuria.
  • High Total protein
  • Low anion gap
  • Hypercalcemia and hyperuricemia favors the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.

(Choice A) This patient has received Vitamin D treatment. Vitamin D toxicity can give rise to hypercalcemia. Serum vitamin D3 levels will be high. PTH will be low.  Patient’s vitamin D level of 40ng/ml (normal range is 30-100ng/ml) does not favor Vitamin D toxicity.

(Choice B) Primary hyperparathyroidism is the commonest cause of hypercalcemia among outpatients. It is characterized by elevated PTH. Patient’s PTH level of 10 pg/ml rules out primary hyperparathyroidism.

(Choice D) Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder of unknown cause. Hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria in sarcoidosis is associated with high vitamin D levels. This patient has low vitamin D levels and hence it is unlikely to be the cause. Also there is no history or findings to suggest sarcoidosis.

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165242
  • 28 of 36
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A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
E. Diabetic nephropathy

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 16524
  • 29 of 36
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Which of the following antihypertensive medications resulted in better blood pressure control and cardiovascular outcomes when combined with an ACE inhibitor?


A. Beta blocker 
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Angiotensin Receptor Blocker 
D. Diuretics 
The correct answer is B
Calcium channel blocker 

Explanation:

The ACCOMPLISH trial has clearly shown that that an ACE inhibitor combined with a Calcium channel blocker (amlodipine) is better than an ACE inhibitor combined with a diuretic (hydrochlorothiazide). This study did not involve beta blockers or angiotensin receptor blockers. 

The ACCOMPLISH trial was the first major clinical trial addressing the issue of combination therapy in 11,000 patients who were at high cardiovascular risk (with prior CAD, diabetes, and/or CKD). The patients were randomly assigned to combination therapy with benazepril (20 mg/day) combined with either amlodipine (5 mg/day) or Hydrochlorothiazide (12.5 mg/day).

The mean blood pressure was significantly lower in the Benazepril + Amlodipine group, with the primary end point also significant in this group. There was a similar benefit with the treatment combination of benazepril-amlodipine in the secondary end point of cardiovascular death compared to the group treated with a combination of amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide. 

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TUTOR - Kidney Transplantation
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165261
  • 30 of 36
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50-year-old female patient whos group B is being evaluated for kidney transplant surgery. She had ESRD secondary to analgesic nephropathy and is on hemodialysis for last 5 years. She has had multiple sensitization events in the form of 3 pregnancies and several blood transfusions. Her current calculated PRA against class I antigen is 97% and against class II antigen is 99%. She has been enrolled in the national highly sensitized recipient program.

Her husband who is blood group matched came forward as a potential kidney donor but she had positive Flow B and T Cell Cross match against him. Single antigen bead assay demonstrated that she has donor specific antibodies against class II across DQB*15 and DPB*14. This transplant did not materialize as patient declined desensitization protocol. Now her younger brother comes forward as a potential donor. He is blood group A and the flow B and T cell cross match is negative with no demonstrable donor specific antibodies against this donor.Patient wants to know more about ABO incompatible transplant.


Which of the following statements about the ABO incompatible transplant is correct?


A. Three-year graft survival is inferior to blood group compatible transplants.
B. The infectious and bleeding complications post ABOI kidney transplant are the same as blood matched kidney transplant.
C. All patients undergoing ABOI transplant need to undergo desensitization using IVIg, Plasma exchange, Rituximab irrespective of their donor/recipient pair Anti ABO titers for optimal outcomes.
D. C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process in the absence of allograft dysfunction.

Correct answer: Option D: C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process.


Explanation:


Choice A: Three-year graft survival is inferior to blood group compatible transplants is incorrect A comprehensive database analysis of 1420 ABOI living donor (LD) kidney transplants performed in 101 centers from 2005 to 2012 compared graft and patient survival to a matched cohort of ABO-compatible transplant recipients. Three-year graft and patient survival were ultimately identical. 1


Choice B: The infectious and bleeding complications post ABOI kidney transplant as same as blood matched kidney transplant is also incorrect. Using USRDS and Medicare data from 2000–2007, 119 ABOI (non-A2 donor) transplant recipients were identified. Compared with ABO-compatible recipients, the risks of infectious and hemorrhagic complications were significantly higher, with a 2.2-fold higher risk of pneumonia, a 3.5-fold higher risk of wound infections, a 56% higher risk of pyelonephritis, and a nearly 2- fold higher risk of hemorrhage 2


Choice C: All patients undergoing ABOI transplant need to undergo desensitization using IVIg, Plasma exchange, Rituximab irrespective of their donor/recipient pair Anti ABO titers for optimal outcomes is also an incorrect answer. Historically, ABOI transplantation has been successful when performed after desensitization with plasmapheresis, intravenous Ig (IVIG), rituximab, and/or splenectomy to achieve ABO IgG antibody titers 1:4. A recent publication demonstrated that these intensified treatments might not be necessary in donor/recipient pairs who have low-moderate titer ABO incompatibility 3


Choice D: C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process in the absence of allograft dysfunction is the correct answer C4d staining is not an uncommon feature seen in the protocol biopsies done in ABOI kidney transplant recipients. In the absence of allograft dysfunction, the C4d staining has no clinical relevance and is just a part of the graft accommodation.

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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165233
  • 31 of 36
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A 25 year-old female is referred by her primary care provider for evaluation of hypertension and hypokalemia. The primary care provider has already started her on oral potassium, despite therapy her Potassium being 2.8 meq/L. Her blood pressure despite treatment with amlodipine and Lisinopril 154/96 mm of Hg. There is no renal bruit. Systemic and fundus examinations are normal. Her mother was also diagnosed with hypertension at an early age. Her brother died of a cerebrovascular accident 2 years ago. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Na   140 

Potassium 2.8 

Chloride   100 

HCO3    26

BUN   15 

Creatinine  0.8 

Glucose    110

TSH and Cortisol are normal

ACTH    elevated

Renin   0.7 (Low)

Aldosterone  48 (elevated)


Urinalysis:

Sodium   240 mEq/D

Potassium  98 mEq/D

Urinary 18-OH Cortisol and 18-oxocortisol are elevated.

The most appropriate treatment for this patient is:

A. Steroids
B. Spironolactone 
C. Steroids + Spironolactone
D. Amiloride 
The correct answer is C

Steroids + Spironolactone

Explanation:

This patient has (GRA) – Glucocorticoid Remediable Aldosteronism. These are typically young patients presenting with hypertension and hypokalemia. There is strong family history of early onset hypertension along with a history of fatal CVA or hemorrhagic strokes. These patients typically have low Renin and high Aldosterone mimicking a state of primary hyperaldosteronism. Because of this they have high urinary potassium losses as manifested in this patient. (Urinary potassium of more than 40mEq/D is considered increased losses). Increased ACTH and 18-OH cortisol further support the diagnosis of GRA.

Steroids alone are used in the treatment of Pregnancy associated mineralocorticoid excess and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Steroids alone in this patient will suppress ACTH but this patient also needs an aldosterone antagonist for the hyperldosterone state and to reduce urinary potassium losses. Hence, the right answer is steroids plus spironolactone.

Spironolactone alone is not sufficient, as steroids are needed to suppress the increased ACTH state. 

Amiloride blocks the EnaC channel in Liddle’s syndrome.

PLEASE NOTE THAT "GRA" IS A FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTION IN NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAMS

PLEASE REVIEW GLUCOCORTICOID REMEDIABLE ALDOSTERONISM WELL. 

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TUTOR - CKD / ESRD / MBD
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167340
  • 32 of 36
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A 40 year-old pleasant African man with ESRD secondary to FSGS started automated peritoneal dialysis. His prescription includes 2.5 L and 3 exchanges over 8 hours at night with a last fill of 2 L. He has a urine output of 1000 mL/day. A typical ultrafiltration on cycler is used at 1000 mL. Average drain volume of the day dwell was 1500 mL prior to going on the cycler at night. 

He came with complains of lower abdominal wall edema extending to the scrotum over the past 5 days. Without any change in the dialysis prescription, his drain volume before going on the cycler dropped to 900 mL, and the ultrafiltration volume on the cycler came down to 100 mL. He reports no pain with fill or drain. 

What is the next step?


A. Chest X ray PA and lateral view 
B. Drain the fluid middle of the day to reduce the dwell time
C. PD catheter manipulation
D. Abdominal CT scan with contrast in the dialysate
E. Switch to hemodialysis 
E. Pleurodesis 
The correct answer is D 

Abdominal CT scan with contrast in the dialysate

Explanation:

Typical ultrafiltration failure from peritoneal membrane failure presents gradually. More frequently, we see an apparent ultrafiltration failure from other reasons. 

Catheter malfunction can present with problem with inflow, outflow or both. A kink in the catheter poses problem with inflow and outflow. 

Omentum or blood clots clogging the catheter can cause only outflow problem. Fibrin clots, constipation with loaded rectum, and displaced PD catheter also cause outflow obstruction. X ray KUB is very helpful in diagnosing displaced catheter.   

FLUID LEAK leak into the abdominal wall causes swelling in the lower abdomen extending down to the scrotum or mons pubis and decrease in the drain volume. Usually this can be treated by temporarily doing low volume PD or transferring to HD for about 6 weeks. Such leaks starting few years after initiating PD usually do not respond to this approach and often requires placement of a new PD catheter.

A patent tunica vaginalis testes will cause UNILATERAL OR BILATERAL SCROTAL SWELLING without much swelling of the abdominal wall sometimes associated with decrease in the drain volume. A CT scan of the abdomen with ‘IV’ contrast into the peritoneal fluid can help in diagnosing the leak into the abdominal wall and scrotal leak. Patent tunica vaginalis testes requires surgery. Generally hemodialysis is not required after the surgery and low volume peritoneal dialysis can be resumed. This patient presents with signs of leak of fluid into the abdominal wall. A chest X ray is not required, so (Choice A) is wrong.

Draining during the middle of the day helps if the membrane is very permeable with very high D/P creatinine ratio on PET. This does not help in abdominal wall leak of dialysate. Therefore, (Choice B) is also wrong.

PD catheter manipulation (Choice C) is wrong because this patient does not have displaced PD catheter from the information given.

(Choice D) is the correct answer. If the clinical presentation is very convincing, most patients are treated with reducing the dialysate volume and if possible keeping the abdomen dry during the day. Sometimes these patients need to be switched to hemodialysis for 4-6 weeks before PD is resumed. Hence temporary switch to HD would be a correct answer, but unqualified switch to HD as is stated in answer E would be a wrong choice. Therefore, (Choice E) is the wrong or less appropriate answer.

ABDOMINAL ADHESIONS cause decrease in the drain volume as well and require surgical treatment with low volume PD or temporary HD after that.

DIAPHRAGMATIC LEAK into the pleural space presents with cough and shortness of breath without peripheral signs of fluid overload few weeks after starting peritoneal dialysis (not the presentation in this patient). Usually, such patients present with right sided pleural effusion clinically and on chest X ray PA and lateral view. These patients can be treated with temporary transfer to HD, pleuridesis and return back to PD 4-6 weeks later. Permanent switch to hemoidialysis without pleurodesis is another option.


TREATMENT OPTIONS OF VARIOUS ABDOMINAL/CHEST PROBLEMS AS MENTIONED ABOVE IN PATIENTS ON PERITONEAL DIALYSIS IS FREQUENTLY TESTED ON BOARDS. PLEASE KNOW THE TREATMENT OPTIONS.


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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 165246
  • 33 of 36
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A 32 year-old male is brought to renal clinic with history of hematuria, oedema feet, and puffiness of face. He gives a history of fever and sore throat a week ago. He also complains of breathlessness on exertion and oliguria. Physical examination shows: Pulse 100/min, BP 150/100 mm Hg, and Temp. 37.4 C. He is pale. He has puffiness of face and oedema feet. Systemic examination-unremarkable. Laboratory examination is as follows:

Hb   10.5 g/d

Hct   34%

Platelet 250,000 mm3

WBC  8,000 mm3

Differential count P 80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR  9.8 mm/h


Urinalysis:

Protein   3000 mg/24 h

Glucose   None

RBC   50-60/hpf Dysmorphic

WBC   occasional

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites   Negati

BUN   40 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  4.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  25.5 mEq/L

S. protein  5.5 g/dl

S. Albumin  2.5 g/dl

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  3.2 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C 3    Low

C4     normal

HBsAg /HIV   Neg

ANA    Neg

Kidney Biopsy: Shows enlarged Glomeruli, lobular accentuation, mesangial hypercellularity, endo-capillary proliferation and double contour along the capillary wall. IF shows bright C3 in mesangium and capillary wall with absent immunoglobulin staining. 

Electron Microscopy: Suggestive of dense deposits.

What is the BEST treatment option for this patient?


A. Plasma exchange + Rituximab 
B. Rituximab 
C. Eculuzimab
D. Cyclophosphamide + Steroids 
The correct answer is C

Eculuzimab

Explanation:

This patient has nephritic-nephrotic picture with low C3. The Kidney biopsy along with clinical presentation is suggestive of MPGN. Negative Immunoglobulins along with positive C3 staining narrows it down to DDD (DENSE DEPOSIT DISEASE) or C3-GN (C3-GN GLOMERULONEPHRITIS)

DDD or Dense deposit disease is best treated with Eculuzimab. 
Rituximab has not been found to be useful in DDD or C3-GN. 

ECULUZIMAB : has been shown to be useful in:
1. DDD
2. Atypical HUS – used along with plasma exchange. If using Eculuzimab give meningococcal vaccine or give penicillin till the vaccine becomes effective.

However, (additional information not pertaining to this question)

RITUXIMAB : has been shown to be useful in:
1. ANCA vasculitis (can be used in induction or relapse – RAVE TRIAL)
2. Wegeners
3. HCV cryoglobulinemia
TTP

***** TREATMENT OPTIONS IN GLOMERULONEPHRITIS WITH RITUXIMAB AND ECULUZIMAB ARE FREQUENTLY TESTED CONCEPTS IN NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAMS. PLEASE REVIEW THESE IN DETAIL.*****


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - CKD / ESRD / MBD
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 1673177
  • 34 of 36
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All of the following are helpful in predicting AV Graft stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Hyperpulsatility of the AV Graft
B. Reduced pulse augmentation
C. Increased bleeding and clots 
D. Decreased KT/V
E. Decreased Blood Flow rate
E. Surveillance of the graft
The correct answer is F
Surveillance of the graft

Explanation:

Intra-graft or venous outflow stenosis – A strong pulse in the AV graft - HYPERPULSATILITY suggests an increase in resistance as occurs with a venous stenotic lesion. The intensity of this pulse is directly proportional to the severity of the stenosis. For this reason, in an AV graft Hyperpulsatility can be considered as an indicator of impending AV graft stenosis.

Arterial stenosis – REDUCED PULSE AUGMENTATION suggests inflow stenosis due to stenosis of the arterial anastomosis or of the feeding artery. Although pulse augmentation is commonly performed, it is less sensitive for the detection of inflow stenosis in AV grafts compared with AV fistulas.

INCREASED BLOOD CLOTS, DECREASED KT/V, and DECREASED BLOOD FLOW RATE are all suggestive of impending AV graft stenosis. Often patients are seen with dilated, collateral veins over the arm and chest wall (very important to examine your hemodialysis patients after taking off their shirts) suggestive of central venous stenosis - The classic physical finding in a patient with a significant central venous stenosis is diffuse upper extremity edema. Subcutaneous collateral veins are frequently evident over the chest. Swelling and collateral veins are caused by generalized venous hypertension of the extremity, which occurs in central, but is rare with peripheral lesions. 

SURVEILLANCE  does not predict AV Graft stenosis. It is not a sensitive or specific modality to detect the same accurately.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/23/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

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TUTOR - Kidney Transplantation
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167345
  • 35 of 36
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Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity in a renal transplant recipient is associated with all the below renal biopsy findings EXCEPT:

(THIS PICTURE BELOW IN LOW POWER SHOWS ONE OF THE CLASSICAL FINDINGS IN CSA TOXICITY)


A. Interstitial Fibrosis  
B. Tubular atrophy 
C. Endothelial cell swelling 
D. Glomerular thrombin deposits
E. Glomerular basement membrane thickening 
E. Double contours of the GB 
The correct answer is D

Glomerular thrombin deposits

Explanation:

In a patient with suspected cyclosporine nephrotoxicity, the renal biopsy reveals an obliterative arteriolopathy (which is classically seen in afferent renal arterioles) suggesting primary endothelial damage and subsequently endothelial cell swelling which may persist for months in a patient with elevated cyclosporine blood levels. This is also associated with thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern. In fact according to BANF thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern is most suggestive of chronic allograft nephropathy (CAN) also called as TRANSPLANT GLOMERULOPATHY. 

The other renal biopsy findings of cyclosporine nephrotoxicity include ischemic collapse or scarring of the glomeruli, vacuolization of the tubules, FSGS, and focal areas of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis (producing a picture of “ZEBRA” or "STRIPED" fibrosis) These changes are seen with both low-dose and higher-dose cyclosporine therapy, although they seem to co-relate earlier with higher doses. 

(THE ABOVE PICTURE IN THE UPPER HALF SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY APPEARING DARK AND REDDISH ALTERNATING WITH LIGHT BLUE AREAS OF INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS GIVING A "STRIPED" OR "ZEBRA" APPEARANCE)

THE PICTURE BELOW SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY, VACUOLIZATION OF THE TUBULES AND ISCHEMIC CHANGES:


Mild arteriolar hyalinosis at six months appears to be associated with high doses of cyclosporine and was reversible. However, after more than a year irreversible severe arteriolar hyalinosis and glomerulosclerosis were observed, despite decreased doses and trough levels of cyclosporine.

Glomerular thrombin deposits are typically seen in patients with Lupus, anti phospholipid syndromes and other vasculitides. It is typically not seen in cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - Tubular / Cystic / Miscellaneous
  • Test Id: 1957868d55f435a8fb
  • QId: 167320
  • 36 of 36
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A 25 year-old male comes to the physician complaining of flank pain and hematuria.  He says the pain is constant and dull. There is no frequency, urgency or dysuria.  He has a history of mental retardation and seizures. On physical exam his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, and his pulse is 80 bpm. He has multiple yellow papules across his nose and cheeks and numerous areas of blanched skin spots on his face. A 2-3 cm hypopigmented macule is noted on the right arm. CT scan of the head was done as patient presented with seizures. CT head was reported normal. CT scan of the abdomen shows bilateral hypodense fat containing renal masses and cysts. 


What is the MOST likely diagnosis associated with these findings?

A.  Von Hippel Lindau
B.  Sturge Weber Syndrome
C. Tuberous Sclerosis
D.  Osler Weber Rendu
E.  Neurofibromatosis type 2
The correct answer is C
Tuberous Sclerosis

Explanation:
This patient’s skin lesions are consistent with sebaceous adenomas. The findings of mental retardation, sebaceous adenomas and seizures are most consistent with tuberous sclerosis. Tuberous sclerosis is associated with renal angiomyolipomas and renal cysts. Abdominal CT can diagnose these tumors as the density of fat is less than that of water.  In patients with flank pain and hematuria there is an increased likely of co-existing renal cysts. Based on presentation and findings this is tuberous sclerosis, the other choices are less likely as explained below.

(Choice A) Bilateral renal cell carcinoma is associated with Von Hippel Lindau disease. Imaging is not suggestive of renal cell cancer.
(Choice B) Leptomeningeal Angiomas are cerebral malformations commonly found in Sturge-Weber Syndrome. CT head is normal in this patient.
(Choice D) Osler Weber Rendu is an autosomal dominant disease associated with telangectasias of the mucosal surfaces as well as AVM’s in the brain, GI tract and lung. Again clinical presentation and imaging is not suggestive of this diagnosis.
(Choice E) Neurofibromatosis type 2 is an autosomal dominant condition associated with acoustic neuromas, gliomas and ependymomas. Skin shows neurifibromas but other associations favor the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis.

 ASSOCIATED FINDINGS IN TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS -- 
(This patient has majority of these as bolded below)
 o      Bilateral renal angiomyolipomas (Fat containing renal masses on CT scan)
 o      Renal Cysts
 o      Astrocytomas
 o      Cortical tubers
 o      Ash-leaf spots on skin
 o      Sebaceous adenomas on face
 o     Seizures
 o      Mental retardation

IMPORTANT TOPIC FROM RENAL BOARD POINT OF VIEW

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/13/2017
Last Modified: 12/30/2017

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