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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165233
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A 25 year-old female is referred by her primary care provider for evaluation of hypertension and hypokalemia. The primary care provider has already started her on oral potassium, despite therapy her Potassium being 2.8 meq/L. Her blood pressure despite treatment with amlodipine and Lisinopril 154/96 mm of Hg. There is no renal bruit. Systemic and fundus examinations are normal. Her mother was also diagnosed with hypertension at an early age. Her brother died of a cerebrovascular accident 2 years ago. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Na   140 

Potassium 2.8 

Chloride   100 

HCO3    26

BUN   15 

Creatinine  0.8 

Glucose    110

TSH and Cortisol are normal

ACTH    elevated

Renin   0.7 (Low)

Aldosterone  48 (elevated)


Urinalysis:

Sodium   240 mEq/D

Potassium  98 mEq/D

Urinary 18-OH Cortisol and 18-oxocortisol are elevated.

The most appropriate treatment for this patient is:

A. Steroids
B. Spironolactone 
C. Steroids + Spironolactone
D. Amiloride 
The correct answer is C

Steroids + Spironolactone

Explanation:

This patient has (GRA) – Glucocorticoid Remediable Aldosteronism. These are typically young patients presenting with hypertension and hypokalemia. There is strong family history of early onset hypertension along with a history of fatal CVA or hemorrhagic strokes. These patients typically have low Renin and high Aldosterone mimicking a state of primary hyperaldosteronism. Because of this they have high urinary potassium losses as manifested in this patient. (Urinary potassium of more than 40mEq/D is considered increased losses). Increased ACTH and 18-OH cortisol further support the diagnosis of GRA.

Steroids alone are used in the treatment of Pregnancy associated mineralocorticoid excess and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Steroids alone in this patient will suppress ACTH but this patient also needs an aldosterone antagonist for the hyperldosterone state and to reduce urinary potassium losses. Hence, the right answer is steroids plus spironolactone.

Spironolactone alone is not sufficient, as steroids are needed to suppress the increased ACTH state. 

Amiloride blocks the EnaC channel in Liddle’s syndrome.

PLEASE NOTE THAT "GRA" IS A FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTION IN NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAMS

PLEASE REVIEW GLUCOCORTICOID REMEDIABLE ALDOSTERONISM WELL. 

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Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - Acute Kidney Injury / ICU Nephrology
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 167347
  • 2 of 20
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A 68 year-old African American male with known history of diabetes mellitus,  hyperlipidemia, CVD, and GERD presents to the ER with chest pain and shortness of breath. Patient says the pain is a crushing pain and radiating to his left arm. It woke him from sleep 30 minutes ago. He took his antacids and 4 tablets of nitroglycerin, and the pain got better. His current medications include low dose aspirin, metoprolol, glyburide, pioglitazone, lisinopril, simvastatin, and omeprazole. He recently suffered an upper respiratory infection for which he was given Levofloxacin. Vitals show: BP 160/95 mm Hg, T 98.1, and HR 110. He has no edema legs and no jugular venous distention. EKG shows LVH by voltage criteria with isoelectric ST segment. Serial troponin levels are normal. A stress test showed evidence of stress inducible ischemia in the anterior leads. He is scheduled for cardiac catheterization the next day. Laboratory results are as follows:

Serum Chemistry:

Na   143 mEq/L

K   3.5 mEq/L

Cl   101 mEq/L

HCO3  22 mEq/L

BUN   35 mg/dL

Cr   3.0 mg/dL

Glucose  110 mg/dL 

What would you do to PROTECT the kidneys before doing the cardiac catheterization?

A. Dopamine IV infusion before and after the  procedure.
B. Nifedipine.
C. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate infusion before and after the procedure.
D. N Acetyl Cysteine before and after the procedure
E. Start mannitol IV before the procedure
E. Left ventriculogram quickly with coronary angiogram
The correct answer is C

Isotonic sodium bicarbonate infusion before and after the procedure. N acetyl cysteine is also used but efficacy in studies is unproven.

Explanation:

Contrast nephropathy usually presents as rise in creatinine 24-48 hrs after exposure to IV radio-contrast.

Other features of CONTRAST NEPHROPATHY are:
  • Low fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) below 1%.
  • Iodinated contrast agents test false positive for protein and hence proteinuria gets overestimated
  • It is reversible most of the time
  • UA may show muddy brown granular casts, tubular epithelial cell casts and numerous tubular epithelial casts.

Contrast associated nephropathy has to be differentiated from atheroembolic disease which presents with deterioration in kidney function days to weeks after the procedure,  embolic lesions (such as digital ischemia of the toes) or livedo reticularis, transient eosinophilia and hypocomplementemia,  protracted course with frequently little or no recovery of renal function, and kidney biopsy showing the typical biconvex, needle-shaped clefts ("ghosts") within the occluded vessel from the space occupied by the cholesterol crystal that dissolves during the processing of the tissue giving a ‘fish mouth’ appearance.

(Choice A) There is no evidence to support that dopamine infusion is beneficial. In fact, it may be harmful.

(Choice B) There is no evidence to support that nifedipine is beneficial.

(Choice C) There are studies to suggest that infusion of isotonic saline or half normal saline may be beneficial. Since alkalization may protect against free radical injury, the possibility that sodium bicarbonate may be superior to isotonic saline. In patients who tolerate extra volume (i.e. those who are not volume overloaded or those who are not in heart failure) it would be reasonable to infuse isotonic sodium bicarbonate or saline.

(Choice D) There are studies to suggest that oral N acetyl cysteine before and after the procedure to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy is beneficial. There are also studies to suggest that this is not beneficial. N acetyl is believed to function by its vasodilator effect and antioxidant effect. Considering that N Acetyl cysteine is safe and cheap, many physicians would administer it prophylactically as well even though results are conflicting. 

(Choice E) There are studies to suggest that prophylactic mannitol or furosemide is harmful.
    
(Choice F) Left ventriculogram should be avoided in patients at high risk of developing contrast nephropathy to minimize the quantity of IV contrast needed.

RISK FACTORS - for contrast nephropathy are :
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Myeloma kidney
  • Hypotension

Educational Objective:

1. Identify and diagnose contrast nephropathy

2. Prevention of contrast nephropathy

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Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - Kidney Transplantation
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165261
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50-year-old female patient whos group B is being evaluated for kidney transplant surgery. She had ESRD secondary to analgesic nephropathy and is on hemodialysis for last 5 years. She has had multiple sensitization events in the form of 3 pregnancies and several blood transfusions. Her current calculated PRA against class I antigen is 97% and against class II antigen is 99%. She has been enrolled in the national highly sensitized recipient program.

Her husband who is blood group matched came forward as a potential kidney donor but she had positive Flow B and T Cell Cross match against him. Single antigen bead assay demonstrated that she has donor specific antibodies against class II across DQB*15 and DPB*14. This transplant did not materialize as patient declined desensitization protocol. Now her younger brother comes forward as a potential donor. He is blood group A and the flow B and T cell cross match is negative with no demonstrable donor specific antibodies against this donor.Patient wants to know more about ABO incompatible transplant.


Which of the following statements about the ABO incompatible transplant is correct?


A. Three-year graft survival is inferior to blood group compatible transplants.
B. The infectious and bleeding complications post ABOI kidney transplant are the same as blood matched kidney transplant.
C. All patients undergoing ABOI transplant need to undergo desensitization using IVIg, Plasma exchange, Rituximab irrespective of their donor/recipient pair Anti ABO titers for optimal outcomes.
D. C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process in the absence of allograft dysfunction.

Correct answer: Option D: C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process.


Explanation:


Choice A: Three-year graft survival is inferior to blood group compatible transplants is incorrect A comprehensive database analysis of 1420 ABOI living donor (LD) kidney transplants performed in 101 centers from 2005 to 2012 compared graft and patient survival to a matched cohort of ABO-compatible transplant recipients. Three-year graft and patient survival were ultimately identical. 1


Choice B: The infectious and bleeding complications post ABOI kidney transplant as same as blood matched kidney transplant is also incorrect. Using USRDS and Medicare data from 2000–2007, 119 ABOI (non-A2 donor) transplant recipients were identified. Compared with ABO-compatible recipients, the risks of infectious and hemorrhagic complications were significantly higher, with a 2.2-fold higher risk of pneumonia, a 3.5-fold higher risk of wound infections, a 56% higher risk of pyelonephritis, and a nearly 2- fold higher risk of hemorrhage 2


Choice C: All patients undergoing ABOI transplant need to undergo desensitization using IVIg, Plasma exchange, Rituximab irrespective of their donor/recipient pair Anti ABO titers for optimal outcomes is also an incorrect answer. Historically, ABOI transplantation has been successful when performed after desensitization with plasmapheresis, intravenous Ig (IVIG), rituximab, and/or splenectomy to achieve ABO IgG antibody titers 1:4. A recent publication demonstrated that these intensified treatments might not be necessary in donor/recipient pairs who have low-moderate titer ABO incompatibility 3


Choice D: C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process in the absence of allograft dysfunction is the correct answer C4d staining is not an uncommon feature seen in the protocol biopsies done in ABOI kidney transplant recipients. In the absence of allograft dysfunction, the C4d staining has no clinical relevance and is just a part of the graft accommodation.

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Created On: 10/30/2018
Last Modified: 10/23/2020

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TUTOR - Tubular / Cystic / Miscellaneous
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 167320
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A 25 year-old male comes to the physician complaining of flank pain and hematuria.  He says the pain is constant and dull. There is no frequency, urgency or dysuria.  He has a history of mental retardation and seizures. On physical exam his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, and his pulse is 80 bpm. He has multiple yellow papules across his nose and cheeks and numerous areas of blanched skin spots on his face. A 2-3 cm hypopigmented macule is noted on the right arm. CT scan of the head was done as patient presented with seizures. CT head was reported normal. CT scan of the abdomen shows bilateral hypodense fat containing renal masses and cysts. 


What is the MOST likely diagnosis associated with these findings?

A.  Von Hippel Lindau
B.  Sturge Weber Syndrome
C. Tuberous Sclerosis
D.  Osler Weber Rendu
E.  Neurofibromatosis type 2
The correct answer is C
Tuberous Sclerosis

Explanation:
This patient’s skin lesions are consistent with sebaceous adenomas. The findings of mental retardation, sebaceous adenomas and seizures are most consistent with tuberous sclerosis. Tuberous sclerosis is associated with renal angiomyolipomas and renal cysts. Abdominal CT can diagnose these tumors as the density of fat is less than that of water.  In patients with flank pain and hematuria there is an increased likely of co-existing renal cysts. Based on presentation and findings this is tuberous sclerosis, the other choices are less likely as explained below.

(Choice A) Bilateral renal cell carcinoma is associated with Von Hippel Lindau disease. Imaging is not suggestive of renal cell cancer.
(Choice B) Leptomeningeal Angiomas are cerebral malformations commonly found in Sturge-Weber Syndrome. CT head is normal in this patient.
(Choice D) Osler Weber Rendu is an autosomal dominant disease associated with telangectasias of the mucosal surfaces as well as AVM’s in the brain, GI tract and lung. Again clinical presentation and imaging is not suggestive of this diagnosis.
(Choice E) Neurofibromatosis type 2 is an autosomal dominant condition associated with acoustic neuromas, gliomas and ependymomas. Skin shows neurifibromas but other associations favor the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis.

 ASSOCIATED FINDINGS IN TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS -- 
(This patient has majority of these as bolded below)
 o      Bilateral renal angiomyolipomas (Fat containing renal masses on CT scan)
 o      Renal Cysts
 o      Astrocytomas
 o      Cortical tubers
 o      Ash-leaf spots on skin
 o      Sebaceous adenomas on face
 o     Seizures
 o      Mental retardation

IMPORTANT TOPIC FROM RENAL BOARD POINT OF VIEW

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Created On: 09/13/2017
Last Modified: 12/30/2017

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TUTOR - CKD / ESRD / MBD
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165264
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A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

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TUTOR - Acid - Base
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165230
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A 56 year-old male was brought to the emergency room with drowsiness and lethargy. He has been experiencing these for the last 2 days. He complains of a recent history of anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, He has diabetes mellitus and is on glimepiride 1 mg daily for the last 4 years. One week ago he had decreased vision with redness in his right eye. He was treated by his ophthalmologist with drops which seem to have resolved the problem. He currently takes cholecalciferol weekly for osteoporosis. On physical examination his pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and temperature is 97.7 F. The patient appears drowsy but shows no focal neurological deficits. Review of systems is otherwise unremarkable. Urinalysis is positive for glucose and negative for proteinuria, WBCs and RBC casts. A 24 hour urinary protein collection is significant for proteinuria of 3.5 g/day. Further labs reveal:

Hemoglobin  8 gm%

Hct    24%

MCV   85

WBC   7800/ml

PMN   80%

Lymphocytes  20%

ESR   80 mm/hr

Na    145 mEq/L

BUN   80 mg/dL

Cr    1.8 mg/dL

CL    115 mEq/L

HCO3   25 mEq/L

Uric acid   5.8 mg/dL

Ca    14 mg/dl

PO4    2.8 mg/dL

Total Protein  7.8 gm/dL

Albumin   3.5 mg/dL.

Vitamin D  40 ng/ml

PTH   10 pg/ml

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his hypercalcemia?


A.  Vitamin D toxicity
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C.  Multiple myeloma.
D. Sarcoidosis
The correct answer is C

Multiple myeloma

Explanation:

Multiple myeloma is due to proliferation of plasma cells producing a monoclonal immunoglobulin.

The diagnosis of multiple myeloma is supported by the presence of many of the following factors:
  • Advanced Age
  • Backache and Bone pain
  • Anemia
  • High ESR
  • Urine protein negative by dipstick and positive by other tests is characteristic of light chain proteinuria.
  • High Total protein
  • Low anion gap
  • Hypercalcemia and hyperuricemia favors the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.

(Choice A) This patient has received Vitamin D treatment. Vitamin D toxicity can give rise to hypercalcemia. Serum vitamin D3 levels will be high. PTH will be low.  Patient’s vitamin D level of 40ng/ml (normal range is 30-100ng/ml) does not favor Vitamin D toxicity.

(Choice B) Primary hyperparathyroidism is the commonest cause of hypercalcemia among outpatients. It is characterized by elevated PTH. Patient’s PTH level of 10 pg/ml rules out primary hyperparathyroidism.

(Choice D) Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder of unknown cause. Hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria in sarcoidosis is associated with high vitamin D levels. This patient has low vitamin D levels and hence it is unlikely to be the cause. Also there is no history or findings to suggest sarcoidosis.

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Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165247
  • 7 of 20
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A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165242
  • 8 of 20
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A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
E. Diabetic nephropathy

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 167274
  • 9 of 20
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A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

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Created On: 09/12/2017
Last Modified: 03/07/2021

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TUTOR - Physiology
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165263
  • 10 of 20
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A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

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TUTOR - Hypertension
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165233
  • 11 of 20
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A 25 year-old female is referred by her primary care provider for evaluation of hypertension and hypokalemia. The primary care provider has already started her on oral potassium, despite therapy her Potassium being 2.8 meq/L. Her blood pressure despite treatment with amlodipine and Lisinopril 154/96 mm of Hg. There is no renal bruit. Systemic and fundus examinations are normal. Her mother was also diagnosed with hypertension at an early age. Her brother died of a cerebrovascular accident 2 years ago. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Na   140 

Potassium 2.8 

Chloride   100 

HCO3    26

BUN   15 

Creatinine  0.8 

Glucose    110

TSH and Cortisol are normal

ACTH    elevated

Renin   0.7 (Low)

Aldosterone  48 (elevated)


Urinalysis:

Sodium   240 mEq/D

Potassium  98 mEq/D

Urinary 18-OH Cortisol and 18-oxocortisol are elevated.

The most appropriate treatment for this patient is:

A. Steroids
B. Spironolactone 
C. Steroids + Spironolactone
D. Amiloride 
The correct answer is C

Steroids + Spironolactone

Explanation:

This patient has (GRA) – Glucocorticoid Remediable Aldosteronism. These are typically young patients presenting with hypertension and hypokalemia. There is strong family history of early onset hypertension along with a history of fatal CVA or hemorrhagic strokes. These patients typically have low Renin and high Aldosterone mimicking a state of primary hyperaldosteronism. Because of this they have high urinary potassium losses as manifested in this patient. (Urinary potassium of more than 40mEq/D is considered increased losses). Increased ACTH and 18-OH cortisol further support the diagnosis of GRA.

Steroids alone are used in the treatment of Pregnancy associated mineralocorticoid excess and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Steroids alone in this patient will suppress ACTH but this patient also needs an aldosterone antagonist for the hyperldosterone state and to reduce urinary potassium losses. Hence, the right answer is steroids plus spironolactone.

Spironolactone alone is not sufficient, as steroids are needed to suppress the increased ACTH state. 

Amiloride blocks the EnaC channel in Liddle’s syndrome.

PLEASE NOTE THAT "GRA" IS A FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTION IN NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAMS

PLEASE REVIEW GLUCOCORTICOID REMEDIABLE ALDOSTERONISM WELL. 

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Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - Acute Kidney Injury / ICU Nephrology
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 167347
  • 12 of 20
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A 68 year-old African American male with known history of diabetes mellitus,  hyperlipidemia, CVD, and GERD presents to the ER with chest pain and shortness of breath. Patient says the pain is a crushing pain and radiating to his left arm. It woke him from sleep 30 minutes ago. He took his antacids and 4 tablets of nitroglycerin, and the pain got better. His current medications include low dose aspirin, metoprolol, glyburide, pioglitazone, lisinopril, simvastatin, and omeprazole. He recently suffered an upper respiratory infection for which he was given Levofloxacin. Vitals show: BP 160/95 mm Hg, T 98.1, and HR 110. He has no edema legs and no jugular venous distention. EKG shows LVH by voltage criteria with isoelectric ST segment. Serial troponin levels are normal. A stress test showed evidence of stress inducible ischemia in the anterior leads. He is scheduled for cardiac catheterization the next day. Laboratory results are as follows:

Serum Chemistry:

Na   143 mEq/L

K   3.5 mEq/L

Cl   101 mEq/L

HCO3  22 mEq/L

BUN   35 mg/dL

Cr   3.0 mg/dL

Glucose  110 mg/dL 

What would you do to PROTECT the kidneys before doing the cardiac catheterization?

A. Dopamine IV infusion before and after the  procedure.
B. Nifedipine.
C. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate infusion before and after the procedure.
D. N Acetyl Cysteine before and after the procedure
E. Start mannitol IV before the procedure
E. Left ventriculogram quickly with coronary angiogram
The correct answer is C

Isotonic sodium bicarbonate infusion before and after the procedure. N acetyl cysteine is also used but efficacy in studies is unproven.

Explanation:

Contrast nephropathy usually presents as rise in creatinine 24-48 hrs after exposure to IV radio-contrast.

Other features of CONTRAST NEPHROPATHY are:
  • Low fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) below 1%.
  • Iodinated contrast agents test false positive for protein and hence proteinuria gets overestimated
  • It is reversible most of the time
  • UA may show muddy brown granular casts, tubular epithelial cell casts and numerous tubular epithelial casts.

Contrast associated nephropathy has to be differentiated from atheroembolic disease which presents with deterioration in kidney function days to weeks after the procedure,  embolic lesions (such as digital ischemia of the toes) or livedo reticularis, transient eosinophilia and hypocomplementemia,  protracted course with frequently little or no recovery of renal function, and kidney biopsy showing the typical biconvex, needle-shaped clefts ("ghosts") within the occluded vessel from the space occupied by the cholesterol crystal that dissolves during the processing of the tissue giving a ‘fish mouth’ appearance.

(Choice A) There is no evidence to support that dopamine infusion is beneficial. In fact, it may be harmful.

(Choice B) There is no evidence to support that nifedipine is beneficial.

(Choice C) There are studies to suggest that infusion of isotonic saline or half normal saline may be beneficial. Since alkalization may protect against free radical injury, the possibility that sodium bicarbonate may be superior to isotonic saline. In patients who tolerate extra volume (i.e. those who are not volume overloaded or those who are not in heart failure) it would be reasonable to infuse isotonic sodium bicarbonate or saline.

(Choice D) There are studies to suggest that oral N acetyl cysteine before and after the procedure to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy is beneficial. There are also studies to suggest that this is not beneficial. N acetyl is believed to function by its vasodilator effect and antioxidant effect. Considering that N Acetyl cysteine is safe and cheap, many physicians would administer it prophylactically as well even though results are conflicting. 

(Choice E) There are studies to suggest that prophylactic mannitol or furosemide is harmful.
    
(Choice F) Left ventriculogram should be avoided in patients at high risk of developing contrast nephropathy to minimize the quantity of IV contrast needed.

RISK FACTORS - for contrast nephropathy are :
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Myeloma kidney
  • Hypotension

Educational Objective:

1. Identify and diagnose contrast nephropathy

2. Prevention of contrast nephropathy

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Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - Kidney Transplantation
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165261
  • 13 of 20
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50-year-old female patient whos group B is being evaluated for kidney transplant surgery. She had ESRD secondary to analgesic nephropathy and is on hemodialysis for last 5 years. She has had multiple sensitization events in the form of 3 pregnancies and several blood transfusions. Her current calculated PRA against class I antigen is 97% and against class II antigen is 99%. She has been enrolled in the national highly sensitized recipient program.

Her husband who is blood group matched came forward as a potential kidney donor but she had positive Flow B and T Cell Cross match against him. Single antigen bead assay demonstrated that she has donor specific antibodies against class II across DQB*15 and DPB*14. This transplant did not materialize as patient declined desensitization protocol. Now her younger brother comes forward as a potential donor. He is blood group A and the flow B and T cell cross match is negative with no demonstrable donor specific antibodies against this donor.Patient wants to know more about ABO incompatible transplant.


Which of the following statements about the ABO incompatible transplant is correct?


A. Three-year graft survival is inferior to blood group compatible transplants.
B. The infectious and bleeding complications post ABOI kidney transplant are the same as blood matched kidney transplant.
C. All patients undergoing ABOI transplant need to undergo desensitization using IVIg, Plasma exchange, Rituximab irrespective of their donor/recipient pair Anti ABO titers for optimal outcomes.
D. C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process in the absence of allograft dysfunction.

Correct answer: Option D: C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process.


Explanation:


Choice A: Three-year graft survival is inferior to blood group compatible transplants is incorrect A comprehensive database analysis of 1420 ABOI living donor (LD) kidney transplants performed in 101 centers from 2005 to 2012 compared graft and patient survival to a matched cohort of ABO-compatible transplant recipients. Three-year graft and patient survival were ultimately identical. 1


Choice B: The infectious and bleeding complications post ABOI kidney transplant as same as blood matched kidney transplant is also incorrect. Using USRDS and Medicare data from 2000–2007, 119 ABOI (non-A2 donor) transplant recipients were identified. Compared with ABO-compatible recipients, the risks of infectious and hemorrhagic complications were significantly higher, with a 2.2-fold higher risk of pneumonia, a 3.5-fold higher risk of wound infections, a 56% higher risk of pyelonephritis, and a nearly 2- fold higher risk of hemorrhage 2


Choice C: All patients undergoing ABOI transplant need to undergo desensitization using IVIg, Plasma exchange, Rituximab irrespective of their donor/recipient pair Anti ABO titers for optimal outcomes is also an incorrect answer. Historically, ABOI transplantation has been successful when performed after desensitization with plasmapheresis, intravenous Ig (IVIG), rituximab, and/or splenectomy to achieve ABO IgG antibody titers 1:4. A recent publication demonstrated that these intensified treatments might not be necessary in donor/recipient pairs who have low-moderate titer ABO incompatibility 3


Choice D: C4d staining on protocol biopsies is common feature and does not necessarily mean an antibody mediated rejection process in the absence of allograft dysfunction is the correct answer C4d staining is not an uncommon feature seen in the protocol biopsies done in ABOI kidney transplant recipients. In the absence of allograft dysfunction, the C4d staining has no clinical relevance and is just a part of the graft accommodation.

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Last Modified: 10/23/2020

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TUTOR - Tubular / Cystic / Miscellaneous
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 167320
  • 14 of 20
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A 25 year-old male comes to the physician complaining of flank pain and hematuria.  He says the pain is constant and dull. There is no frequency, urgency or dysuria.  He has a history of mental retardation and seizures. On physical exam his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, and his pulse is 80 bpm. He has multiple yellow papules across his nose and cheeks and numerous areas of blanched skin spots on his face. A 2-3 cm hypopigmented macule is noted on the right arm. CT scan of the head was done as patient presented with seizures. CT head was reported normal. CT scan of the abdomen shows bilateral hypodense fat containing renal masses and cysts. 


What is the MOST likely diagnosis associated with these findings?

A.  Von Hippel Lindau
B.  Sturge Weber Syndrome
C. Tuberous Sclerosis
D.  Osler Weber Rendu
E.  Neurofibromatosis type 2
The correct answer is C
Tuberous Sclerosis

Explanation:
This patient’s skin lesions are consistent with sebaceous adenomas. The findings of mental retardation, sebaceous adenomas and seizures are most consistent with tuberous sclerosis. Tuberous sclerosis is associated with renal angiomyolipomas and renal cysts. Abdominal CT can diagnose these tumors as the density of fat is less than that of water.  In patients with flank pain and hematuria there is an increased likely of co-existing renal cysts. Based on presentation and findings this is tuberous sclerosis, the other choices are less likely as explained below.

(Choice A) Bilateral renal cell carcinoma is associated with Von Hippel Lindau disease. Imaging is not suggestive of renal cell cancer.
(Choice B) Leptomeningeal Angiomas are cerebral malformations commonly found in Sturge-Weber Syndrome. CT head is normal in this patient.
(Choice D) Osler Weber Rendu is an autosomal dominant disease associated with telangectasias of the mucosal surfaces as well as AVM’s in the brain, GI tract and lung. Again clinical presentation and imaging is not suggestive of this diagnosis.
(Choice E) Neurofibromatosis type 2 is an autosomal dominant condition associated with acoustic neuromas, gliomas and ependymomas. Skin shows neurifibromas but other associations favor the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis.

 ASSOCIATED FINDINGS IN TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS -- 
(This patient has majority of these as bolded below)
 o      Bilateral renal angiomyolipomas (Fat containing renal masses on CT scan)
 o      Renal Cysts
 o      Astrocytomas
 o      Cortical tubers
 o      Ash-leaf spots on skin
 o      Sebaceous adenomas on face
 o     Seizures
 o      Mental retardation

IMPORTANT TOPIC FROM RENAL BOARD POINT OF VIEW

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Last Modified: 12/30/2017

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TUTOR - CKD / ESRD / MBD
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165264
  • 15 of 20
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A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

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TUTOR - Acid - Base
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165230
  • 16 of 20
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A 56 year-old male was brought to the emergency room with drowsiness and lethargy. He has been experiencing these for the last 2 days. He complains of a recent history of anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, He has diabetes mellitus and is on glimepiride 1 mg daily for the last 4 years. One week ago he had decreased vision with redness in his right eye. He was treated by his ophthalmologist with drops which seem to have resolved the problem. He currently takes cholecalciferol weekly for osteoporosis. On physical examination his pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and temperature is 97.7 F. The patient appears drowsy but shows no focal neurological deficits. Review of systems is otherwise unremarkable. Urinalysis is positive for glucose and negative for proteinuria, WBCs and RBC casts. A 24 hour urinary protein collection is significant for proteinuria of 3.5 g/day. Further labs reveal:

Hemoglobin  8 gm%

Hct    24%

MCV   85

WBC   7800/ml

PMN   80%

Lymphocytes  20%

ESR   80 mm/hr

Na    145 mEq/L

BUN   80 mg/dL

Cr    1.8 mg/dL

CL    115 mEq/L

HCO3   25 mEq/L

Uric acid   5.8 mg/dL

Ca    14 mg/dl

PO4    2.8 mg/dL

Total Protein  7.8 gm/dL

Albumin   3.5 mg/dL.

Vitamin D  40 ng/ml

PTH   10 pg/ml

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his hypercalcemia?


A.  Vitamin D toxicity
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C.  Multiple myeloma.
D. Sarcoidosis
The correct answer is C

Multiple myeloma

Explanation:

Multiple myeloma is due to proliferation of plasma cells producing a monoclonal immunoglobulin.

The diagnosis of multiple myeloma is supported by the presence of many of the following factors:
  • Advanced Age
  • Backache and Bone pain
  • Anemia
  • High ESR
  • Urine protein negative by dipstick and positive by other tests is characteristic of light chain proteinuria.
  • High Total protein
  • Low anion gap
  • Hypercalcemia and hyperuricemia favors the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.

(Choice A) This patient has received Vitamin D treatment. Vitamin D toxicity can give rise to hypercalcemia. Serum vitamin D3 levels will be high. PTH will be low.  Patient’s vitamin D level of 40ng/ml (normal range is 30-100ng/ml) does not favor Vitamin D toxicity.

(Choice B) Primary hyperparathyroidism is the commonest cause of hypercalcemia among outpatients. It is characterized by elevated PTH. Patient’s PTH level of 10 pg/ml rules out primary hyperparathyroidism.

(Choice D) Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder of unknown cause. Hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria in sarcoidosis is associated with high vitamin D levels. This patient has low vitamin D levels and hence it is unlikely to be the cause. Also there is no history or findings to suggest sarcoidosis.

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165247
  • 17 of 20
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A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


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Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165242
  • 18 of 20
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A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
E. Diabetic nephropathy

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



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Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

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TUTOR - Glomerulonephritis
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 167274
  • 19 of 20
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A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

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Created On: 09/12/2017
Last Modified: 03/07/2021

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TUTOR - Physiology
  • Test Id: 1865064c4573036102
  • QId: 165263
  • 20 of 20
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A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018
Last Modified: 10/23/2020

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