Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167274
  • 1 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
Omitted
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/12/2017
Last Modified: 03/07/2021

End

Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167274
  • 2 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
Omitted
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/12/2017
Last Modified: 03/07/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 3 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All of the following are helpful in predicting AV Graft stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Hyperpulsatility of the AV Graft
B. Ruduced pulse augmentation
C. Increased bleeding and clots 
D. Decreased KT/V
E. Decreased Blood Flow rate
F. Surveillance of the graft
Omitted
The correct answer is F

Surveillance of the graft

Explanation:

Intra-graft or venous outflow stenosis – A strong pulse in the AV graft - HYPERPULSATILITY suggests an increase in resistance as occurs with a venous stenotic lesion. The intensity of this pulse is directly proportional to the severity of the stenosis. For this reason, in an AV graft Hyperpulsatility can be considered as an indicator of impending AV graft stenosis.

Arterial stenosis – REDUCED PULSE AUGMENTATION suggests inflow stenosis due to stenosis of the arterial anastomosis or of the feeding artery. Although pulse augmentation is commonly performed, it is less sensitive for the detection of inflow stenosis in AV grafts compared with AV fistulas.

INCREASED BLOOD CLOTS, DECREASED KT/V, and DECREASED BLOOD FLOW RATE are all suggestive of impending AV graft stenosis. Often patients are seen with dilated, collateral veins over the arm and chest wall (very important to examine your hemodialysis patients after taking off their shirts) suggestive of central venous stenosis - The classic physical finding in a patient with a significant central venous stenosis is diffuse upper extremity edema. Subcutaneous collateral veins are frequently evident over the chest. Swelling and collateral veins are caused by generalized venous hypertension of the extremity, which occurs in central, but is rare with peripheral lesions. 

SURVEILLANCE  does not predict AV Graft stenosis. It is not a sensitive or specific modality to detect the same accurately.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 4 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All of the following are helpful in predicting AV Graft stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Hyperpulsatility of the AV Graft
B. Ruduced pulse augmentation
C. Increased bleeding and clots 
D. Decreased KT/V
E. Decreased Blood Flow rate
F. Surveillance of the graft
Omitted
The correct answer is F

Surveillance of the graft

Explanation:

Intra-graft or venous outflow stenosis – A strong pulse in the AV graft - HYPERPULSATILITY suggests an increase in resistance as occurs with a venous stenotic lesion. The intensity of this pulse is directly proportional to the severity of the stenosis. For this reason, in an AV graft Hyperpulsatility can be considered as an indicator of impending AV graft stenosis.

Arterial stenosis – REDUCED PULSE AUGMENTATION suggests inflow stenosis due to stenosis of the arterial anastomosis or of the feeding artery. Although pulse augmentation is commonly performed, it is less sensitive for the detection of inflow stenosis in AV grafts compared with AV fistulas.

INCREASED BLOOD CLOTS, DECREASED KT/V, and DECREASED BLOOD FLOW RATE are all suggestive of impending AV graft stenosis. Often patients are seen with dilated, collateral veins over the arm and chest wall (very important to examine your hemodialysis patients after taking off their shirts) suggestive of central venous stenosis - The classic physical finding in a patient with a significant central venous stenosis is diffuse upper extremity edema. Subcutaneous collateral veins are frequently evident over the chest. Swelling and collateral veins are caused by generalized venous hypertension of the extremity, which occurs in central, but is rare with peripheral lesions. 

SURVEILLANCE  does not predict AV Graft stenosis. It is not a sensitive or specific modality to detect the same accurately.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 5 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity in a renal transplant recipient is associated with all the below renal biopsy findings EXCEPT:

(THIS PICTURE BELOW IN LOW POWER SHOWS ONE OF THE CLASSICAL FINDINGS IN CSA TOXICITY)


A. Interstitial Fibrosis  
B. Tubular atrophy 
C. Endothelial cell swelling 
D. Glomerular thrombin deposits
E. Glomerular basement membrane thickening 
F. Double contours of the GB 
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Glomerular thrombin deposits

Explanation:

In a patient with suspected cyclosporine nephrotoxicity, the renal biopsy reveals an obliterative arteriolopathy (which is classically seen in afferent renal arterioles) suggesting primary endothelial damage and subsequently endothelial cell swelling which may persist for months in a patient with elevated cyclosporine blood levels. This is also associated with thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern. In fact according to BANF thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern is most suggestive of chronic allograft nephropathy (CAN) also called as TRANSPLANT GLOMERULOPATHY. 

The other renal biopsy findings of cyclosporine nephrotoxicity include ischemic collapse or scarring of the glomeruli, vacuolization of the tubules, FSGS, and focal areas of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis (producing a picture of “ZEBRA” or "STRIPED" fibrosis) These changes are seen with both low-dose and higher-dose cyclosporine therapy, although they seem to co-relate earlier with higher doses. 

(THE ABOVE PICTURE IN THE UPPER HALF SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY APPEARING DARK AND REDDISH ALTERNATING WITH LIGHT BLUE AREAS OF INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS GIVING A "STRIPED" OR "ZEBRA" APPEARANCE)

THE PICTURE BELOW SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY, VACUOLIZATION OF THE TUBULES AND ISCHEMIC CHANGES:


Mild arteriolar hyalinosis at six months appears to be associated with high doses of cyclosporine and was reversible. However, after more than a year irreversible severe arteriolar hyalinosis and glomerulosclerosis were observed, despite decreased doses and trough levels of cyclosporine.

Glomerular thrombin deposits are typically seen in patients with Lupus, anti phospholipid syndromes and other vasculitides. It is typically not seen in cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 6 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity in a renal transplant recipient is associated with all the below renal biopsy findings EXCEPT:

(THIS PICTURE BELOW IN LOW POWER SHOWS ONE OF THE CLASSICAL FINDINGS IN CSA TOXICITY)


A. Interstitial Fibrosis  
B. Tubular atrophy 
C. Endothelial cell swelling 
D. Glomerular thrombin deposits
E. Glomerular basement membrane thickening 
F. Double contours of the GB 
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Glomerular thrombin deposits

Explanation:

In a patient with suspected cyclosporine nephrotoxicity, the renal biopsy reveals an obliterative arteriolopathy (which is classically seen in afferent renal arterioles) suggesting primary endothelial damage and subsequently endothelial cell swelling which may persist for months in a patient with elevated cyclosporine blood levels. This is also associated with thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern. In fact according to BANF thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern is most suggestive of chronic allograft nephropathy (CAN) also called as TRANSPLANT GLOMERULOPATHY. 

The other renal biopsy findings of cyclosporine nephrotoxicity include ischemic collapse or scarring of the glomeruli, vacuolization of the tubules, FSGS, and focal areas of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis (producing a picture of “ZEBRA” or "STRIPED" fibrosis) These changes are seen with both low-dose and higher-dose cyclosporine therapy, although they seem to co-relate earlier with higher doses. 

(THE ABOVE PICTURE IN THE UPPER HALF SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY APPEARING DARK AND REDDISH ALTERNATING WITH LIGHT BLUE AREAS OF INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS GIVING A "STRIPED" OR "ZEBRA" APPEARANCE)

THE PICTURE BELOW SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY, VACUOLIZATION OF THE TUBULES AND ISCHEMIC CHANGES:


Mild arteriolar hyalinosis at six months appears to be associated with high doses of cyclosporine and was reversible. However, after more than a year irreversible severe arteriolar hyalinosis and glomerulosclerosis were observed, despite decreased doses and trough levels of cyclosporine.

Glomerular thrombin deposits are typically seen in patients with Lupus, anti phospholipid syndromes and other vasculitides. It is typically not seen in cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165242
  • 7 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
F. Diabetic nephropathy
Omitted

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165242
  • 8 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
F. Diabetic nephropathy
Omitted

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165243
  • 9 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

You are the nephrologist on call. The  ER calls you for an 18 year-old female who complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Her serum sodium is 116 mEq/L and Serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. On physical examination the patient is drowsy, Pulse is 126/min, BP is 90/60 mm of Hg, and RR is  32/min. Her chest is clear. Her heart sounds are normal, and no murmur is visible. The patient is drowsy but arousable and there was no focal neurological deficit. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Hb    16 gm/dl 

WBC   12,800/cmm 

Polymorph  46% 

Lymphocytes  16% 

Eosinophils  4%

Monocytes  4%

Platelets   2,40,000/cmm.

CL    70 mEq/L

BUN  10 mg/dl

Creatinine  0.5 mg/dl

Na    116 mEq/L

K    5.8 mEq/L


Urinalysis:

pH    6.4

Protein  trace

Glucose  absent

microscopic occasional WBCs & RBCs

Urinary Na  90 mEq/L

Urinary K         20 mEq/L

ABG    

PH                   7.32

PCO2   36 

HCO3   20 mEq/L

PaO2   92

O2 saturation  98%

S. Cortisol  6.00 mg/dl

TSH   3.5 IU/m (Normal 0-5 IU/m ).

Both plasma Renin and Aldosterone are high. 

Which of the following conditions is most likely with these findings?


A. Type 4 RTA 
B. Pseudo-hypo-aldosteronism Type 1 
C. Gordon's syndrome
D.  Diarrhea
Omitted
The correct answer is B
 
Pseudo hypo-aldosteronism type 1

Explanation:

This patient has hyponatremia with high urinary sodium. High serum potassium, low urinary potassium, and normal adrenal function. The serum aldosterone level is high, suggesting resistance to aldosterone action of target organ. These findings are characteristic of Pseudohypo aldosteronism type1 (PHA Type1)

PHA type1 is a rare hereditary disorder, characterized by generalized resistance to the action of aldosterone. It presents with 
1. Salt wasting 
2. Hypovolemia 
3. Normotension
4. Metabolic acidosis 
5. Hyperkalemia
6. High Renin and Aldosterone.  

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 6 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 1

These are two different modes of inheritance:
1] Autosomal recessive.
2] Autosomal dominant.

Autosomal recessive affects the epithelial sodium channel and other target organs like kidney, colon, and sweat gland. There is a down regulation of the sodium channels and decreased sodium transport.

Autosomal dominant or sporadic form is due to heterozygous mutations in the NR3C2 gene coding for mineralocorticoid receptor. This is milder form than autosomal recessive disease in which only kidney is affected. The disease often improves with age.

Treatment consists of high salt diet. This prevents volume depletion and by enhancing sodium delivery to the distal tubules, potassium exertion increases, thereby bringing down the serum potassium. 

High dose Fludrocortisone (1 to 2 mg/day ), or Carbenoxolone is indicated if high salt intake is ineffective or not tolerated.

(Choice A) Type IV RTA will have low aldesterone and low renin level. Therefore, that is not the likely answer.

(Choice D) Diarrhea will have metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia and Net urine charge will be negative. This patient has positive Net urine charge with hyperkalemia which rules out diarrhea as a cause.

(Choice C)  = PHA TYPE 2 (Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2) OR = Gordon’s syndrome is characterized by:
 1. Hypertension 
 2. Hyperkalaemia 
 3. Metabolic acidosis
 4. Low plasma Renin and Aldosterone. This is due to mutations in WNK kinases 1 and 4. These mutations result in increased  chloride reabsorption with sodium retention thereby resulting in hypertension.

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 4 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 2 or GORDON's SYNDROME

IF YOU KNOW THESE 10 POINTS OF PSEUDOHYPOALDOSTERONISM TYPE 1 & 2 THAN YOU CAN ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON PHA 1, 2 AND GORDON'S SYNDROME WHICH ARE GOING TO BE ASKED FOR SURE ON THE BOARDS.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165243
  • 10 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

You are the nephrologist on call. The  ER calls you for an 18 year-old female who complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Her serum sodium is 116 mEq/L and Serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. On physical examination the patient is drowsy, Pulse is 126/min, BP is 90/60 mm of Hg, and RR is  32/min. Her chest is clear. Her heart sounds are normal, and no murmur is visible. The patient is drowsy but arousable and there was no focal neurological deficit. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Hb    16 gm/dl 

WBC   12,800/cmm 

Polymorph  46% 

Lymphocytes  16% 

Eosinophils  4%

Monocytes  4%

Platelets   2,40,000/cmm.

CL    70 mEq/L

BUN  10 mg/dl

Creatinine  0.5 mg/dl

Na    116 mEq/L

K    5.8 mEq/L


Urinalysis:

pH    6.4

Protein  trace

Glucose  absent

microscopic occasional WBCs & RBCs

Urinary Na  90 mEq/L

Urinary K         20 mEq/L

ABG    

PH                   7.32

PCO2   36 

HCO3   20 mEq/L

PaO2   92

O2 saturation  98%

S. Cortisol  6.00 mg/dl

TSH   3.5 IU/m (Normal 0-5 IU/m ).

Both plasma Renin and Aldosterone are high. 

Which of the following conditions is most likely with these findings?


A. Type 4 RTA 
B. Pseudo-hypo-aldosteronism Type 1 
C. Gordon's syndrome
D.  Diarrhea
Omitted
The correct answer is B
 
Pseudo hypo-aldosteronism type 1

Explanation:

This patient has hyponatremia with high urinary sodium. High serum potassium, low urinary potassium, and normal adrenal function. The serum aldosterone level is high, suggesting resistance to aldosterone action of target organ. These findings are characteristic of Pseudohypo aldosteronism type1 (PHA Type1)

PHA type1 is a rare hereditary disorder, characterized by generalized resistance to the action of aldosterone. It presents with 
1. Salt wasting 
2. Hypovolemia 
3. Normotension
4. Metabolic acidosis 
5. Hyperkalemia
6. High Renin and Aldosterone.  

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 6 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 1

These are two different modes of inheritance:
1] Autosomal recessive.
2] Autosomal dominant.

Autosomal recessive affects the epithelial sodium channel and other target organs like kidney, colon, and sweat gland. There is a down regulation of the sodium channels and decreased sodium transport.

Autosomal dominant or sporadic form is due to heterozygous mutations in the NR3C2 gene coding for mineralocorticoid receptor. This is milder form than autosomal recessive disease in which only kidney is affected. The disease often improves with age.

Treatment consists of high salt diet. This prevents volume depletion and by enhancing sodium delivery to the distal tubules, potassium exertion increases, thereby bringing down the serum potassium. 

High dose Fludrocortisone (1 to 2 mg/day ), or Carbenoxolone is indicated if high salt intake is ineffective or not tolerated.

(Choice A) Type IV RTA will have low aldesterone and low renin level. Therefore, that is not the likely answer.

(Choice D) Diarrhea will have metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia and Net urine charge will be negative. This patient has positive Net urine charge with hyperkalemia which rules out diarrhea as a cause.

(Choice C)  = PHA TYPE 2 (Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2) OR = Gordon’s syndrome is characterized by:
 1. Hypertension 
 2. Hyperkalaemia 
 3. Metabolic acidosis
 4. Low plasma Renin and Aldosterone. This is due to mutations in WNK kinases 1 and 4. These mutations result in increased  chloride reabsorption with sodium retention thereby resulting in hypertension.

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 4 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 2 or GORDON's SYNDROME

IF YOU KNOW THESE 10 POINTS OF PSEUDOHYPOALDOSTERONISM TYPE 1 & 2 THAN YOU CAN ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON PHA 1, 2 AND GORDON'S SYNDROME WHICH ARE GOING TO BE ASKED FOR SURE ON THE BOARDS.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165247
  • 11 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
Omitted
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165247
  • 12 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
Omitted
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165256
  • 13 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 30 year-old man comes to your office for a painful rash on the neck. He has fever and malaise. He has history of HIV. He is currently taking Tenofovir, emtricitabine, and indinavir.  The rash is suggestive of Herpes Zoster rash :

Physical examination does not reveal any oral cavity lesions. His current CD4 count is 250/mm3. His chemistry is normal. He is started on an intravenous medication for his rash. Two days later his chemistry is as follows:

Na    135 mEq/L

K     4.5 mEq/L                  

CL    100 mEq/L

HCO3   24 mEq/L                  

BUN  21 mg/dL                       

Cr   2.0 mEq/L

Glucose  95 mg/dL

Calcium   9.4 mg/dl

Urinalysis shows needle-shaped crystals in the sediment.

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his renal problem?


A.  Indinavir
B.  Tumor lysis syndrome
C.  Antifreeze ingestion
D.  Acyclovir
E.  IV TMP/SMX
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Acyclovir

Explanation:

This patient has a characteristic lesion of herpes zoster on his neck. The vesicles are 2-3 mm in size with erythematous base. They are in different stages of development. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in elderly and immunocompromised. This patient is 30 year old and immunocompromised (HIV positive with AIDS). The treatment of choice for herpes zoster in immunocompromised patient is IV acyclovir. High dose Acyclovir is one of the causes of crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are needle-shaped.

Indinavir (Choice A), a protease inhibitor, is a common cause of nephrolithiasis in HIV patients. Patients would often present with flank pain. Urinalysis would show hematuria and needle shaped crystals. This patient, however, had normal serum chemistry on presentation. Following two days of IV medication (acyclovir) his serum chemistry showed elevated creatinine suggesting acyclovir as the most likely cause.

Tumor lysis syndrome (Choice B) occurs in the setting of chemotherapy for lymphoma.  It leads to the formation of uric acid crystals which are also needle shaped. This patient has no such presentation.

Patients with Anti-freeze ingestion (Choice C) present with metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap. The initial test of urinalysis shows envelope-shaped oxalate crystals.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) (Choice E) has sulfonamide in it. Sulfonamide also leads to crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are often dumb-bell shaped.

Educational Objective:

Drugs causing Crystal-induced nephropathy:

ACYCLOVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

INDINAVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

SULPHONAMIDE --- Dumbell shaped crystals

CALCIUM OXALLATE (Antifreeze) --- Envelope shaped crystal

CALCIUM PO4---- Coffin shaped crystals

URIC ACID --- Hexagonal crystals

CYSTIENE --- Hexagonal crystals


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165256
  • 14 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 30 year-old man comes to your office for a painful rash on the neck. He has fever and malaise. He has history of HIV. He is currently taking Tenofovir, emtricitabine, and indinavir.  The rash is suggestive of Herpes Zoster rash :

Physical examination does not reveal any oral cavity lesions. His current CD4 count is 250/mm3. His chemistry is normal. He is started on an intravenous medication for his rash. Two days later his chemistry is as follows:

Na    135 mEq/L

K     4.5 mEq/L                  

CL    100 mEq/L

HCO3   24 mEq/L                  

BUN  21 mg/dL                       

Cr   2.0 mEq/L

Glucose  95 mg/dL

Calcium   9.4 mg/dl

Urinalysis shows needle-shaped crystals in the sediment.

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his renal problem?


A.  Indinavir
B.  Tumor lysis syndrome
C.  Antifreeze ingestion
D.  Acyclovir
E.  IV TMP/SMX
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Acyclovir

Explanation:

This patient has a characteristic lesion of herpes zoster on his neck. The vesicles are 2-3 mm in size with erythematous base. They are in different stages of development. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in elderly and immunocompromised. This patient is 30 year old and immunocompromised (HIV positive with AIDS). The treatment of choice for herpes zoster in immunocompromised patient is IV acyclovir. High dose Acyclovir is one of the causes of crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are needle-shaped.

Indinavir (Choice A), a protease inhibitor, is a common cause of nephrolithiasis in HIV patients. Patients would often present with flank pain. Urinalysis would show hematuria and needle shaped crystals. This patient, however, had normal serum chemistry on presentation. Following two days of IV medication (acyclovir) his serum chemistry showed elevated creatinine suggesting acyclovir as the most likely cause.

Tumor lysis syndrome (Choice B) occurs in the setting of chemotherapy for lymphoma.  It leads to the formation of uric acid crystals which are also needle shaped. This patient has no such presentation.

Patients with Anti-freeze ingestion (Choice C) present with metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap. The initial test of urinalysis shows envelope-shaped oxalate crystals.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) (Choice E) has sulfonamide in it. Sulfonamide also leads to crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are often dumb-bell shaped.

Educational Objective:

Drugs causing Crystal-induced nephropathy:

ACYCLOVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

INDINAVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

SULPHONAMIDE --- Dumbell shaped crystals

CALCIUM OXALLATE (Antifreeze) --- Envelope shaped crystal

CALCIUM PO4---- Coffin shaped crystals

URIC ACID --- Hexagonal crystals

CYSTIENE --- Hexagonal crystals


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165258
  • 15 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

 In a CKD and ESRD patient, Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease events by controlling secondary hyperparathyroidism. The OPERA trial evaluated the effect of paricalcitol Vitamin D analog in CKD stages 3-5 with left ventricular hypertrophy. The study observed the effect on left ventricular mass and function.

Which of the following statements is true about the effect of paricalcitol in CKD and ESRD patients?

A. Paricalcitol treatment reduced LV mass
B. Paricalcitol treatment preserved LV ejection fraction
C. Paricalcitol treatment improved pulse wave velocity and arterial stiffness
D. Paricalcitol treatment improved blood pressure control
E. Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase 
Omitted
The correct answer is E

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase

Explanation:

Vitamin D Rx DOES NOT reduce LV mass OR LV ejection fraction OR arterial stiffness
Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease, but the reported effects of vitamin D on patient outcomes in CKD are controversial.

OPERA trial was a prospective, double blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial to determine whether oral activated vitamin D reduces left ventricular (LV) mass in patients with stages 3-5 CKD with LV hypertrophy.
Subjects with echocardiographic criteria of LV hypertrophy were randomly assigned to receive either oral paricalcitol (1 ?g) one time daily (n=30) or matching placebo (n=30) for 52 weeks.

The primary end point was change in LV mass index over 52 weeks, which was measured by cardiac magnetic resonance imaging. Secondary end points included changes in LV volume, echocardiographic measures of systolic and diastolic function, biochemical parameters of mineral bone disease, and measures of renal function.
Change in LV mass index did not differ significantly between groups (median [interquartile range], -2.59 [-6.13 to 0.32] g/m(2) with paricalcitol versus -4.85 [-9.89 to 1.10] g/m(2) with placebo).
Changes in LV volume, ejection fraction, and tissue Doppler-derived measures of early diastolic and systolic mitral annular velocities, and ratio of early mitral inflow velocity to early diastolic mitral annular velocity did not differ between the groups.

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced intact parathyroid hormone (P<0.001) and alkaline phosphatase (P=0.001) levels as well as the number of cardiovascular-related hospitalizations compared with placebo.

52 weeks of treatment with oral paricalcitol (1 ?g one time daily) significantly improved secondary hyperparathyroidism but did not alter measures of LV structure and function in patients with severe CKD and ESRD.

OPERA and PRIMO are two recent randomized clinical trials in patients with CKD, which evaluated paricalcitol for slowing the progression of left ventricular mass. Both these trials were found to have negative results.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165258
  • 16 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

 In a CKD and ESRD patient, Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease events by controlling secondary hyperparathyroidism. The OPERA trial evaluated the effect of paricalcitol Vitamin D analog in CKD stages 3-5 with left ventricular hypertrophy. The study observed the effect on left ventricular mass and function.

Which of the following statements is true about the effect of paricalcitol in CKD and ESRD patients?

A. Paricalcitol treatment reduced LV mass
B. Paricalcitol treatment preserved LV ejection fraction
C. Paricalcitol treatment improved pulse wave velocity and arterial stiffness
D. Paricalcitol treatment improved blood pressure control
E. Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase 
Omitted
The correct answer is E

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase

Explanation:

Vitamin D Rx DOES NOT reduce LV mass OR LV ejection fraction OR arterial stiffness
Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease, but the reported effects of vitamin D on patient outcomes in CKD are controversial.

OPERA trial was a prospective, double blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial to determine whether oral activated vitamin D reduces left ventricular (LV) mass in patients with stages 3-5 CKD with LV hypertrophy.
Subjects with echocardiographic criteria of LV hypertrophy were randomly assigned to receive either oral paricalcitol (1 ?g) one time daily (n=30) or matching placebo (n=30) for 52 weeks.

The primary end point was change in LV mass index over 52 weeks, which was measured by cardiac magnetic resonance imaging. Secondary end points included changes in LV volume, echocardiographic measures of systolic and diastolic function, biochemical parameters of mineral bone disease, and measures of renal function.
Change in LV mass index did not differ significantly between groups (median [interquartile range], -2.59 [-6.13 to 0.32] g/m(2) with paricalcitol versus -4.85 [-9.89 to 1.10] g/m(2) with placebo).
Changes in LV volume, ejection fraction, and tissue Doppler-derived measures of early diastolic and systolic mitral annular velocities, and ratio of early mitral inflow velocity to early diastolic mitral annular velocity did not differ between the groups.

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced intact parathyroid hormone (P<0.001) and alkaline phosphatase (P=0.001) levels as well as the number of cardiovascular-related hospitalizations compared with placebo.

52 weeks of treatment with oral paricalcitol (1 ?g one time daily) significantly improved secondary hyperparathyroidism but did not alter measures of LV structure and function in patients with severe CKD and ESRD.

OPERA and PRIMO are two recent randomized clinical trials in patients with CKD, which evaluated paricalcitol for slowing the progression of left ventricular mass. Both these trials were found to have negative results.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165263
  • 17 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.
Omitted

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018
Last Modified: 10/23/2020

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165263
  • 18 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.
Omitted

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018
Last Modified: 10/23/2020

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165264
  • 19 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.
Incorrect

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165264
  • 20 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.
Incorrect

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 21 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All the following drugs mentioned below cause hyperkalemia. All the drugs act by a specific mechanism to induce hyperkalemia. Only one drug acts by a different mechanism of action. Which is the drug which induces hyperkalemia via a different mechanism than others?  



A. Heparin.
B. Low molecular weight heparin. 
C. Aminoglutethimide. 
D. Dabigatran.
E. Calcineurin inhibitors. 
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Calcineurin inhibitors. 

 

Explanation. 

Heparin, Low molecular weight heparin, Aminoglutethimide and Dabigatran all cause impaired adrenal hormone metabolism. These drugs cause potent inhibition of adrenal hormone synthesis leading to hyperkalemia. 

The hyperkalemia seen with calcineurin inhibition is likely multifactorial and relates to inhibitory effects on Na+-K+-ATPase in collecting ducts and possibly to distal tubular acidosis. In addition, there is evidence that decreased numbers of mineralocorticoid receptors, which are detected in 75% of patients who are treated with cyclosporine, lead to hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis as a result of aldosterone resistance. Recently, it was demonstrated that cyclosporine reduces paracellin-1 expression in thick ascending limb cells. The resulting decrease in magnesium transport likely contributes to the magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia induced by cyclosporine, which is associated with chronic interstitial fibrosis, a faster rate of decline of kidney function, and increased rates of graft loss in renal transplant recipients with CNI nephrotoxicity. Finally, it was shown that cyclosporine indirectly opens ATP-sensitive K+ channels by inhibition of calcineurin, which could contribute to the CNI-associated hyperkalemia. 

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/18/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 22 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All the following drugs mentioned below cause hyperkalemia. All the drugs act by a specific mechanism to induce hyperkalemia. Only one drug acts by a different mechanism of action. Which is the drug which induces hyperkalemia via a different mechanism than others?  



A. Heparin.
B. Low molecular weight heparin. 
C. Aminoglutethimide. 
D. Dabigatran.
E. Calcineurin inhibitors. 
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Calcineurin inhibitors. 

 

Explanation. 

Heparin, Low molecular weight heparin, Aminoglutethimide and Dabigatran all cause impaired adrenal hormone metabolism. These drugs cause potent inhibition of adrenal hormone synthesis leading to hyperkalemia. 

The hyperkalemia seen with calcineurin inhibition is likely multifactorial and relates to inhibitory effects on Na+-K+-ATPase in collecting ducts and possibly to distal tubular acidosis. In addition, there is evidence that decreased numbers of mineralocorticoid receptors, which are detected in 75% of patients who are treated with cyclosporine, lead to hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis as a result of aldosterone resistance. Recently, it was demonstrated that cyclosporine reduces paracellin-1 expression in thick ascending limb cells. The resulting decrease in magnesium transport likely contributes to the magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia induced by cyclosporine, which is associated with chronic interstitial fibrosis, a faster rate of decline of kidney function, and increased rates of graft loss in renal transplant recipients with CNI nephrotoxicity. Finally, it was shown that cyclosporine indirectly opens ATP-sensitive K+ channels by inhibition of calcineurin, which could contribute to the CNI-associated hyperkalemia. 

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/18/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 23 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old Hispanic woman is referred to you for evaluation of nephrotic syndrome. She has history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Both diabetes and hypertension are well controlled. Her serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows only proteinuria, and protein to creatinine ratio is 6. A renal biopsy shows amyloidosis and interstitial fibrosis. Based on the above history, biopsy findings, and proteinuria, which one of the following diagnostic tests you order to characterize the type of her amyloidosis?

A. Electron microscopy of the glomerulus.
B. Immunofluorescent studies.
C. Immunofixation study.
D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).
E. No further testing.
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).

 

Explanation. 

ALECT2 amyloidosis is a systemic form of amyloidosis with predominantly renal and liver involvement. Most reported cases in North America (88 to 92 %) occur in older Hispanic adults of Mexican origin, although Punjabis, First Nations people in British Columbia, and Native Americans also have a predisposition for this disorder. In one study of renal amyloidosis among Egyptians, ALECT2 amyloidosis was the second most common form of renal amyloidosis behind AA and ahead of AL amyloidosis. Cases have also been reported in Pakistani, Sudanese, and Chinese patients. The pathogenesis of ALECT2 amyloidosis is not well understood. Patients typically present with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and variable proteinuria; nephrotic syndrome is uncommon. A kidney biopsy, preferably with laser microdissection and mass spectrometry, is required to make the diagnosis. Patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis characteristically have diffuse Congo red-positive amyloid deposition in the cortical interstitium, with variable glomerular and vascular involvement. In general, patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis have better overall survival than those with AL or AA amyloidosis, possibly due to the absence or rare occurrence of cardiac involvement. However, renal survival is relatively poor, with up to 39 percent of patients progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). There are no specific therapies for ALECT2 amyloidosis.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/19/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 24 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old Hispanic woman is referred to you for evaluation of nephrotic syndrome. She has history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Both diabetes and hypertension are well controlled. Her serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows only proteinuria, and protein to creatinine ratio is 6. A renal biopsy shows amyloidosis and interstitial fibrosis. Based on the above history, biopsy findings, and proteinuria, which one of the following diagnostic tests you order to characterize the type of her amyloidosis?

A. Electron microscopy of the glomerulus.
B. Immunofluorescent studies.
C. Immunofixation study.
D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).
E. No further testing.
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).

 

Explanation. 

ALECT2 amyloidosis is a systemic form of amyloidosis with predominantly renal and liver involvement. Most reported cases in North America (88 to 92 %) occur in older Hispanic adults of Mexican origin, although Punjabis, First Nations people in British Columbia, and Native Americans also have a predisposition for this disorder. In one study of renal amyloidosis among Egyptians, ALECT2 amyloidosis was the second most common form of renal amyloidosis behind AA and ahead of AL amyloidosis. Cases have also been reported in Pakistani, Sudanese, and Chinese patients. The pathogenesis of ALECT2 amyloidosis is not well understood. Patients typically present with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and variable proteinuria; nephrotic syndrome is uncommon. A kidney biopsy, preferably with laser microdissection and mass spectrometry, is required to make the diagnosis. Patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis characteristically have diffuse Congo red-positive amyloid deposition in the cortical interstitium, with variable glomerular and vascular involvement. In general, patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis have better overall survival than those with AL or AA amyloidosis, possibly due to the absence or rare occurrence of cardiac involvement. However, renal survival is relatively poor, with up to 39 percent of patients progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). There are no specific therapies for ALECT2 amyloidosis.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/19/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167274
  • 25 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
Omitted
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/12/2017
Last Modified: 03/07/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167274
  • 26 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
Omitted
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/12/2017
Last Modified: 03/07/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 27 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All of the following are helpful in predicting AV Graft stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Hyperpulsatility of the AV Graft
B. Ruduced pulse augmentation
C. Increased bleeding and clots 
D. Decreased KT/V
E. Decreased Blood Flow rate
F. Surveillance of the graft
Omitted
The correct answer is F

Surveillance of the graft

Explanation:

Intra-graft or venous outflow stenosis – A strong pulse in the AV graft - HYPERPULSATILITY suggests an increase in resistance as occurs with a venous stenotic lesion. The intensity of this pulse is directly proportional to the severity of the stenosis. For this reason, in an AV graft Hyperpulsatility can be considered as an indicator of impending AV graft stenosis.

Arterial stenosis – REDUCED PULSE AUGMENTATION suggests inflow stenosis due to stenosis of the arterial anastomosis or of the feeding artery. Although pulse augmentation is commonly performed, it is less sensitive for the detection of inflow stenosis in AV grafts compared with AV fistulas.

INCREASED BLOOD CLOTS, DECREASED KT/V, and DECREASED BLOOD FLOW RATE are all suggestive of impending AV graft stenosis. Often patients are seen with dilated, collateral veins over the arm and chest wall (very important to examine your hemodialysis patients after taking off their shirts) suggestive of central venous stenosis - The classic physical finding in a patient with a significant central venous stenosis is diffuse upper extremity edema. Subcutaneous collateral veins are frequently evident over the chest. Swelling and collateral veins are caused by generalized venous hypertension of the extremity, which occurs in central, but is rare with peripheral lesions. 

SURVEILLANCE  does not predict AV Graft stenosis. It is not a sensitive or specific modality to detect the same accurately.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 28 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All of the following are helpful in predicting AV Graft stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Hyperpulsatility of the AV Graft
B. Ruduced pulse augmentation
C. Increased bleeding and clots 
D. Decreased KT/V
E. Decreased Blood Flow rate
F. Surveillance of the graft
Omitted
The correct answer is F

Surveillance of the graft

Explanation:

Intra-graft or venous outflow stenosis – A strong pulse in the AV graft - HYPERPULSATILITY suggests an increase in resistance as occurs with a venous stenotic lesion. The intensity of this pulse is directly proportional to the severity of the stenosis. For this reason, in an AV graft Hyperpulsatility can be considered as an indicator of impending AV graft stenosis.

Arterial stenosis – REDUCED PULSE AUGMENTATION suggests inflow stenosis due to stenosis of the arterial anastomosis or of the feeding artery. Although pulse augmentation is commonly performed, it is less sensitive for the detection of inflow stenosis in AV grafts compared with AV fistulas.

INCREASED BLOOD CLOTS, DECREASED KT/V, and DECREASED BLOOD FLOW RATE are all suggestive of impending AV graft stenosis. Often patients are seen with dilated, collateral veins over the arm and chest wall (very important to examine your hemodialysis patients after taking off their shirts) suggestive of central venous stenosis - The classic physical finding in a patient with a significant central venous stenosis is diffuse upper extremity edema. Subcutaneous collateral veins are frequently evident over the chest. Swelling and collateral veins are caused by generalized venous hypertension of the extremity, which occurs in central, but is rare with peripheral lesions. 

SURVEILLANCE  does not predict AV Graft stenosis. It is not a sensitive or specific modality to detect the same accurately.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 29 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity in a renal transplant recipient is associated with all the below renal biopsy findings EXCEPT:

(THIS PICTURE BELOW IN LOW POWER SHOWS ONE OF THE CLASSICAL FINDINGS IN CSA TOXICITY)


A. Interstitial Fibrosis  
B. Tubular atrophy 
C. Endothelial cell swelling 
D. Glomerular thrombin deposits
E. Glomerular basement membrane thickening 
F. Double contours of the GB 
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Glomerular thrombin deposits

Explanation:

In a patient with suspected cyclosporine nephrotoxicity, the renal biopsy reveals an obliterative arteriolopathy (which is classically seen in afferent renal arterioles) suggesting primary endothelial damage and subsequently endothelial cell swelling which may persist for months in a patient with elevated cyclosporine blood levels. This is also associated with thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern. In fact according to BANF thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern is most suggestive of chronic allograft nephropathy (CAN) also called as TRANSPLANT GLOMERULOPATHY. 

The other renal biopsy findings of cyclosporine nephrotoxicity include ischemic collapse or scarring of the glomeruli, vacuolization of the tubules, FSGS, and focal areas of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis (producing a picture of “ZEBRA” or "STRIPED" fibrosis) These changes are seen with both low-dose and higher-dose cyclosporine therapy, although they seem to co-relate earlier with higher doses. 

(THE ABOVE PICTURE IN THE UPPER HALF SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY APPEARING DARK AND REDDISH ALTERNATING WITH LIGHT BLUE AREAS OF INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS GIVING A "STRIPED" OR "ZEBRA" APPEARANCE)

THE PICTURE BELOW SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY, VACUOLIZATION OF THE TUBULES AND ISCHEMIC CHANGES:


Mild arteriolar hyalinosis at six months appears to be associated with high doses of cyclosporine and was reversible. However, after more than a year irreversible severe arteriolar hyalinosis and glomerulosclerosis were observed, despite decreased doses and trough levels of cyclosporine.

Glomerular thrombin deposits are typically seen in patients with Lupus, anti phospholipid syndromes and other vasculitides. It is typically not seen in cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 30 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity in a renal transplant recipient is associated with all the below renal biopsy findings EXCEPT:

(THIS PICTURE BELOW IN LOW POWER SHOWS ONE OF THE CLASSICAL FINDINGS IN CSA TOXICITY)


A. Interstitial Fibrosis  
B. Tubular atrophy 
C. Endothelial cell swelling 
D. Glomerular thrombin deposits
E. Glomerular basement membrane thickening 
F. Double contours of the GB 
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Glomerular thrombin deposits

Explanation:

In a patient with suspected cyclosporine nephrotoxicity, the renal biopsy reveals an obliterative arteriolopathy (which is classically seen in afferent renal arterioles) suggesting primary endothelial damage and subsequently endothelial cell swelling which may persist for months in a patient with elevated cyclosporine blood levels. This is also associated with thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern. In fact according to BANF thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern is most suggestive of chronic allograft nephropathy (CAN) also called as TRANSPLANT GLOMERULOPATHY. 

The other renal biopsy findings of cyclosporine nephrotoxicity include ischemic collapse or scarring of the glomeruli, vacuolization of the tubules, FSGS, and focal areas of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis (producing a picture of “ZEBRA” or "STRIPED" fibrosis) These changes are seen with both low-dose and higher-dose cyclosporine therapy, although they seem to co-relate earlier with higher doses. 

(THE ABOVE PICTURE IN THE UPPER HALF SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY APPEARING DARK AND REDDISH ALTERNATING WITH LIGHT BLUE AREAS OF INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS GIVING A "STRIPED" OR "ZEBRA" APPEARANCE)

THE PICTURE BELOW SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY, VACUOLIZATION OF THE TUBULES AND ISCHEMIC CHANGES:


Mild arteriolar hyalinosis at six months appears to be associated with high doses of cyclosporine and was reversible. However, after more than a year irreversible severe arteriolar hyalinosis and glomerulosclerosis were observed, despite decreased doses and trough levels of cyclosporine.

Glomerular thrombin deposits are typically seen in patients with Lupus, anti phospholipid syndromes and other vasculitides. It is typically not seen in cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165242
  • 31 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
F. Diabetic nephropathy
Omitted

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165242
  • 32 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
F. Diabetic nephropathy
Omitted

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165243
  • 33 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

You are the nephrologist on call. The  ER calls you for an 18 year-old female who complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Her serum sodium is 116 mEq/L and Serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. On physical examination the patient is drowsy, Pulse is 126/min, BP is 90/60 mm of Hg, and RR is  32/min. Her chest is clear. Her heart sounds are normal, and no murmur is visible. The patient is drowsy but arousable and there was no focal neurological deficit. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Hb    16 gm/dl 

WBC   12,800/cmm 

Polymorph  46% 

Lymphocytes  16% 

Eosinophils  4%

Monocytes  4%

Platelets   2,40,000/cmm.

CL    70 mEq/L

BUN  10 mg/dl

Creatinine  0.5 mg/dl

Na    116 mEq/L

K    5.8 mEq/L


Urinalysis:

pH    6.4

Protein  trace

Glucose  absent

microscopic occasional WBCs & RBCs

Urinary Na  90 mEq/L

Urinary K         20 mEq/L

ABG    

PH                   7.32

PCO2   36 

HCO3   20 mEq/L

PaO2   92

O2 saturation  98%

S. Cortisol  6.00 mg/dl

TSH   3.5 IU/m (Normal 0-5 IU/m ).

Both plasma Renin and Aldosterone are high. 

Which of the following conditions is most likely with these findings?


A. Type 4 RTA 
B. Pseudo-hypo-aldosteronism Type 1 
C. Gordon's syndrome
D.  Diarrhea
Omitted
The correct answer is B
 
Pseudo hypo-aldosteronism type 1

Explanation:

This patient has hyponatremia with high urinary sodium. High serum potassium, low urinary potassium, and normal adrenal function. The serum aldosterone level is high, suggesting resistance to aldosterone action of target organ. These findings are characteristic of Pseudohypo aldosteronism type1 (PHA Type1)

PHA type1 is a rare hereditary disorder, characterized by generalized resistance to the action of aldosterone. It presents with 
1. Salt wasting 
2. Hypovolemia 
3. Normotension
4. Metabolic acidosis 
5. Hyperkalemia
6. High Renin and Aldosterone.  

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 6 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 1

These are two different modes of inheritance:
1] Autosomal recessive.
2] Autosomal dominant.

Autosomal recessive affects the epithelial sodium channel and other target organs like kidney, colon, and sweat gland. There is a down regulation of the sodium channels and decreased sodium transport.

Autosomal dominant or sporadic form is due to heterozygous mutations in the NR3C2 gene coding for mineralocorticoid receptor. This is milder form than autosomal recessive disease in which only kidney is affected. The disease often improves with age.

Treatment consists of high salt diet. This prevents volume depletion and by enhancing sodium delivery to the distal tubules, potassium exertion increases, thereby bringing down the serum potassium. 

High dose Fludrocortisone (1 to 2 mg/day ), or Carbenoxolone is indicated if high salt intake is ineffective or not tolerated.

(Choice A) Type IV RTA will have low aldesterone and low renin level. Therefore, that is not the likely answer.

(Choice D) Diarrhea will have metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia and Net urine charge will be negative. This patient has positive Net urine charge with hyperkalemia which rules out diarrhea as a cause.

(Choice C)  = PHA TYPE 2 (Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2) OR = Gordon’s syndrome is characterized by:
 1. Hypertension 
 2. Hyperkalaemia 
 3. Metabolic acidosis
 4. Low plasma Renin and Aldosterone. This is due to mutations in WNK kinases 1 and 4. These mutations result in increased  chloride reabsorption with sodium retention thereby resulting in hypertension.

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 4 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 2 or GORDON's SYNDROME

IF YOU KNOW THESE 10 POINTS OF PSEUDOHYPOALDOSTERONISM TYPE 1 & 2 THAN YOU CAN ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON PHA 1, 2 AND GORDON'S SYNDROME WHICH ARE GOING TO BE ASKED FOR SURE ON THE BOARDS.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165243
  • 34 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

You are the nephrologist on call. The  ER calls you for an 18 year-old female who complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Her serum sodium is 116 mEq/L and Serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. On physical examination the patient is drowsy, Pulse is 126/min, BP is 90/60 mm of Hg, and RR is  32/min. Her chest is clear. Her heart sounds are normal, and no murmur is visible. The patient is drowsy but arousable and there was no focal neurological deficit. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Hb    16 gm/dl 

WBC   12,800/cmm 

Polymorph  46% 

Lymphocytes  16% 

Eosinophils  4%

Monocytes  4%

Platelets   2,40,000/cmm.

CL    70 mEq/L

BUN  10 mg/dl

Creatinine  0.5 mg/dl

Na    116 mEq/L

K    5.8 mEq/L


Urinalysis:

pH    6.4

Protein  trace

Glucose  absent

microscopic occasional WBCs & RBCs

Urinary Na  90 mEq/L

Urinary K         20 mEq/L

ABG    

PH                   7.32

PCO2   36 

HCO3   20 mEq/L

PaO2   92

O2 saturation  98%

S. Cortisol  6.00 mg/dl

TSH   3.5 IU/m (Normal 0-5 IU/m ).

Both plasma Renin and Aldosterone are high. 

Which of the following conditions is most likely with these findings?


A. Type 4 RTA 
B. Pseudo-hypo-aldosteronism Type 1 
C. Gordon's syndrome
D.  Diarrhea
Omitted
The correct answer is B
 
Pseudo hypo-aldosteronism type 1

Explanation:

This patient has hyponatremia with high urinary sodium. High serum potassium, low urinary potassium, and normal adrenal function. The serum aldosterone level is high, suggesting resistance to aldosterone action of target organ. These findings are characteristic of Pseudohypo aldosteronism type1 (PHA Type1)

PHA type1 is a rare hereditary disorder, characterized by generalized resistance to the action of aldosterone. It presents with 
1. Salt wasting 
2. Hypovolemia 
3. Normotension
4. Metabolic acidosis 
5. Hyperkalemia
6. High Renin and Aldosterone.  

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 6 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 1

These are two different modes of inheritance:
1] Autosomal recessive.
2] Autosomal dominant.

Autosomal recessive affects the epithelial sodium channel and other target organs like kidney, colon, and sweat gland. There is a down regulation of the sodium channels and decreased sodium transport.

Autosomal dominant or sporadic form is due to heterozygous mutations in the NR3C2 gene coding for mineralocorticoid receptor. This is milder form than autosomal recessive disease in which only kidney is affected. The disease often improves with age.

Treatment consists of high salt diet. This prevents volume depletion and by enhancing sodium delivery to the distal tubules, potassium exertion increases, thereby bringing down the serum potassium. 

High dose Fludrocortisone (1 to 2 mg/day ), or Carbenoxolone is indicated if high salt intake is ineffective or not tolerated.

(Choice A) Type IV RTA will have low aldesterone and low renin level. Therefore, that is not the likely answer.

(Choice D) Diarrhea will have metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia and Net urine charge will be negative. This patient has positive Net urine charge with hyperkalemia which rules out diarrhea as a cause.

(Choice C)  = PHA TYPE 2 (Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2) OR = Gordon’s syndrome is characterized by:
 1. Hypertension 
 2. Hyperkalaemia 
 3. Metabolic acidosis
 4. Low plasma Renin and Aldosterone. This is due to mutations in WNK kinases 1 and 4. These mutations result in increased  chloride reabsorption with sodium retention thereby resulting in hypertension.

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 4 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 2 or GORDON's SYNDROME

IF YOU KNOW THESE 10 POINTS OF PSEUDOHYPOALDOSTERONISM TYPE 1 & 2 THAN YOU CAN ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON PHA 1, 2 AND GORDON'S SYNDROME WHICH ARE GOING TO BE ASKED FOR SURE ON THE BOARDS.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165247
  • 35 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
Omitted
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165247
  • 36 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
Omitted
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165256
  • 37 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 30 year-old man comes to your office for a painful rash on the neck. He has fever and malaise. He has history of HIV. He is currently taking Tenofovir, emtricitabine, and indinavir.  The rash is suggestive of Herpes Zoster rash :

Physical examination does not reveal any oral cavity lesions. His current CD4 count is 250/mm3. His chemistry is normal. He is started on an intravenous medication for his rash. Two days later his chemistry is as follows:

Na    135 mEq/L

K     4.5 mEq/L                  

CL    100 mEq/L

HCO3   24 mEq/L                  

BUN  21 mg/dL                       

Cr   2.0 mEq/L

Glucose  95 mg/dL

Calcium   9.4 mg/dl

Urinalysis shows needle-shaped crystals in the sediment.

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his renal problem?


A.  Indinavir
B.  Tumor lysis syndrome
C.  Antifreeze ingestion
D.  Acyclovir
E.  IV TMP/SMX
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Acyclovir

Explanation:

This patient has a characteristic lesion of herpes zoster on his neck. The vesicles are 2-3 mm in size with erythematous base. They are in different stages of development. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in elderly and immunocompromised. This patient is 30 year old and immunocompromised (HIV positive with AIDS). The treatment of choice for herpes zoster in immunocompromised patient is IV acyclovir. High dose Acyclovir is one of the causes of crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are needle-shaped.

Indinavir (Choice A), a protease inhibitor, is a common cause of nephrolithiasis in HIV patients. Patients would often present with flank pain. Urinalysis would show hematuria and needle shaped crystals. This patient, however, had normal serum chemistry on presentation. Following two days of IV medication (acyclovir) his serum chemistry showed elevated creatinine suggesting acyclovir as the most likely cause.

Tumor lysis syndrome (Choice B) occurs in the setting of chemotherapy for lymphoma.  It leads to the formation of uric acid crystals which are also needle shaped. This patient has no such presentation.

Patients with Anti-freeze ingestion (Choice C) present with metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap. The initial test of urinalysis shows envelope-shaped oxalate crystals.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) (Choice E) has sulfonamide in it. Sulfonamide also leads to crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are often dumb-bell shaped.

Educational Objective:

Drugs causing Crystal-induced nephropathy:

ACYCLOVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

INDINAVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

SULPHONAMIDE --- Dumbell shaped crystals

CALCIUM OXALLATE (Antifreeze) --- Envelope shaped crystal

CALCIUM PO4---- Coffin shaped crystals

URIC ACID --- Hexagonal crystals

CYSTIENE --- Hexagonal crystals


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165256
  • 38 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 30 year-old man comes to your office for a painful rash on the neck. He has fever and malaise. He has history of HIV. He is currently taking Tenofovir, emtricitabine, and indinavir.  The rash is suggestive of Herpes Zoster rash :

Physical examination does not reveal any oral cavity lesions. His current CD4 count is 250/mm3. His chemistry is normal. He is started on an intravenous medication for his rash. Two days later his chemistry is as follows:

Na    135 mEq/L

K     4.5 mEq/L                  

CL    100 mEq/L

HCO3   24 mEq/L                  

BUN  21 mg/dL                       

Cr   2.0 mEq/L

Glucose  95 mg/dL

Calcium   9.4 mg/dl

Urinalysis shows needle-shaped crystals in the sediment.

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his renal problem?


A.  Indinavir
B.  Tumor lysis syndrome
C.  Antifreeze ingestion
D.  Acyclovir
E.  IV TMP/SMX
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Acyclovir

Explanation:

This patient has a characteristic lesion of herpes zoster on his neck. The vesicles are 2-3 mm in size with erythematous base. They are in different stages of development. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in elderly and immunocompromised. This patient is 30 year old and immunocompromised (HIV positive with AIDS). The treatment of choice for herpes zoster in immunocompromised patient is IV acyclovir. High dose Acyclovir is one of the causes of crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are needle-shaped.

Indinavir (Choice A), a protease inhibitor, is a common cause of nephrolithiasis in HIV patients. Patients would often present with flank pain. Urinalysis would show hematuria and needle shaped crystals. This patient, however, had normal serum chemistry on presentation. Following two days of IV medication (acyclovir) his serum chemistry showed elevated creatinine suggesting acyclovir as the most likely cause.

Tumor lysis syndrome (Choice B) occurs in the setting of chemotherapy for lymphoma.  It leads to the formation of uric acid crystals which are also needle shaped. This patient has no such presentation.

Patients with Anti-freeze ingestion (Choice C) present with metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap. The initial test of urinalysis shows envelope-shaped oxalate crystals.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) (Choice E) has sulfonamide in it. Sulfonamide also leads to crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are often dumb-bell shaped.

Educational Objective:

Drugs causing Crystal-induced nephropathy:

ACYCLOVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

INDINAVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

SULPHONAMIDE --- Dumbell shaped crystals

CALCIUM OXALLATE (Antifreeze) --- Envelope shaped crystal

CALCIUM PO4---- Coffin shaped crystals

URIC ACID --- Hexagonal crystals

CYSTIENE --- Hexagonal crystals


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165258
  • 39 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

 In a CKD and ESRD patient, Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease events by controlling secondary hyperparathyroidism. The OPERA trial evaluated the effect of paricalcitol Vitamin D analog in CKD stages 3-5 with left ventricular hypertrophy. The study observed the effect on left ventricular mass and function.

Which of the following statements is true about the effect of paricalcitol in CKD and ESRD patients?

A. Paricalcitol treatment reduced LV mass
B. Paricalcitol treatment preserved LV ejection fraction
C. Paricalcitol treatment improved pulse wave velocity and arterial stiffness
D. Paricalcitol treatment improved blood pressure control
E. Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase 
Omitted
The correct answer is E

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase

Explanation:

Vitamin D Rx DOES NOT reduce LV mass OR LV ejection fraction OR arterial stiffness
Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease, but the reported effects of vitamin D on patient outcomes in CKD are controversial.

OPERA trial was a prospective, double blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial to determine whether oral activated vitamin D reduces left ventricular (LV) mass in patients with stages 3-5 CKD with LV hypertrophy.
Subjects with echocardiographic criteria of LV hypertrophy were randomly assigned to receive either oral paricalcitol (1 ?g) one time daily (n=30) or matching placebo (n=30) for 52 weeks.

The primary end point was change in LV mass index over 52 weeks, which was measured by cardiac magnetic resonance imaging. Secondary end points included changes in LV volume, echocardiographic measures of systolic and diastolic function, biochemical parameters of mineral bone disease, and measures of renal function.
Change in LV mass index did not differ significantly between groups (median [interquartile range], -2.59 [-6.13 to 0.32] g/m(2) with paricalcitol versus -4.85 [-9.89 to 1.10] g/m(2) with placebo).
Changes in LV volume, ejection fraction, and tissue Doppler-derived measures of early diastolic and systolic mitral annular velocities, and ratio of early mitral inflow velocity to early diastolic mitral annular velocity did not differ between the groups.

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced intact parathyroid hormone (P<0.001) and alkaline phosphatase (P=0.001) levels as well as the number of cardiovascular-related hospitalizations compared with placebo.

52 weeks of treatment with oral paricalcitol (1 ?g one time daily) significantly improved secondary hyperparathyroidism but did not alter measures of LV structure and function in patients with severe CKD and ESRD.

OPERA and PRIMO are two recent randomized clinical trials in patients with CKD, which evaluated paricalcitol for slowing the progression of left ventricular mass. Both these trials were found to have negative results.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165258
  • 40 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

 In a CKD and ESRD patient, Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease events by controlling secondary hyperparathyroidism. The OPERA trial evaluated the effect of paricalcitol Vitamin D analog in CKD stages 3-5 with left ventricular hypertrophy. The study observed the effect on left ventricular mass and function.

Which of the following statements is true about the effect of paricalcitol in CKD and ESRD patients?

A. Paricalcitol treatment reduced LV mass
B. Paricalcitol treatment preserved LV ejection fraction
C. Paricalcitol treatment improved pulse wave velocity and arterial stiffness
D. Paricalcitol treatment improved blood pressure control
E. Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase 
Omitted
The correct answer is E

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase

Explanation:

Vitamin D Rx DOES NOT reduce LV mass OR LV ejection fraction OR arterial stiffness
Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease, but the reported effects of vitamin D on patient outcomes in CKD are controversial.

OPERA trial was a prospective, double blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial to determine whether oral activated vitamin D reduces left ventricular (LV) mass in patients with stages 3-5 CKD with LV hypertrophy.
Subjects with echocardiographic criteria of LV hypertrophy were randomly assigned to receive either oral paricalcitol (1 ?g) one time daily (n=30) or matching placebo (n=30) for 52 weeks.

The primary end point was change in LV mass index over 52 weeks, which was measured by cardiac magnetic resonance imaging. Secondary end points included changes in LV volume, echocardiographic measures of systolic and diastolic function, biochemical parameters of mineral bone disease, and measures of renal function.
Change in LV mass index did not differ significantly between groups (median [interquartile range], -2.59 [-6.13 to 0.32] g/m(2) with paricalcitol versus -4.85 [-9.89 to 1.10] g/m(2) with placebo).
Changes in LV volume, ejection fraction, and tissue Doppler-derived measures of early diastolic and systolic mitral annular velocities, and ratio of early mitral inflow velocity to early diastolic mitral annular velocity did not differ between the groups.

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced intact parathyroid hormone (P<0.001) and alkaline phosphatase (P=0.001) levels as well as the number of cardiovascular-related hospitalizations compared with placebo.

52 weeks of treatment with oral paricalcitol (1 ?g one time daily) significantly improved secondary hyperparathyroidism but did not alter measures of LV structure and function in patients with severe CKD and ESRD.

OPERA and PRIMO are two recent randomized clinical trials in patients with CKD, which evaluated paricalcitol for slowing the progression of left ventricular mass. Both these trials were found to have negative results.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165263
  • 41 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.
Omitted

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018
Last Modified: 10/23/2020

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165263
  • 42 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.
Omitted

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018
Last Modified: 10/23/2020

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165264
  • 43 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.
Incorrect

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165264
  • 44 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.
Incorrect

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 45 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All the following drugs mentioned below cause hyperkalemia. All the drugs act by a specific mechanism to induce hyperkalemia. Only one drug acts by a different mechanism of action. Which is the drug which induces hyperkalemia via a different mechanism than others?  



A. Heparin.
B. Low molecular weight heparin. 
C. Aminoglutethimide. 
D. Dabigatran.
E. Calcineurin inhibitors. 
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Calcineurin inhibitors. 

 

Explanation. 

Heparin, Low molecular weight heparin, Aminoglutethimide and Dabigatran all cause impaired adrenal hormone metabolism. These drugs cause potent inhibition of adrenal hormone synthesis leading to hyperkalemia. 

The hyperkalemia seen with calcineurin inhibition is likely multifactorial and relates to inhibitory effects on Na+-K+-ATPase in collecting ducts and possibly to distal tubular acidosis. In addition, there is evidence that decreased numbers of mineralocorticoid receptors, which are detected in 75% of patients who are treated with cyclosporine, lead to hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis as a result of aldosterone resistance. Recently, it was demonstrated that cyclosporine reduces paracellin-1 expression in thick ascending limb cells. The resulting decrease in magnesium transport likely contributes to the magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia induced by cyclosporine, which is associated with chronic interstitial fibrosis, a faster rate of decline of kidney function, and increased rates of graft loss in renal transplant recipients with CNI nephrotoxicity. Finally, it was shown that cyclosporine indirectly opens ATP-sensitive K+ channels by inhibition of calcineurin, which could contribute to the CNI-associated hyperkalemia. 

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/18/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 46 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All the following drugs mentioned below cause hyperkalemia. All the drugs act by a specific mechanism to induce hyperkalemia. Only one drug acts by a different mechanism of action. Which is the drug which induces hyperkalemia via a different mechanism than others?  



A. Heparin.
B. Low molecular weight heparin. 
C. Aminoglutethimide. 
D. Dabigatran.
E. Calcineurin inhibitors. 
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Calcineurin inhibitors. 

 

Explanation. 

Heparin, Low molecular weight heparin, Aminoglutethimide and Dabigatran all cause impaired adrenal hormone metabolism. These drugs cause potent inhibition of adrenal hormone synthesis leading to hyperkalemia. 

The hyperkalemia seen with calcineurin inhibition is likely multifactorial and relates to inhibitory effects on Na+-K+-ATPase in collecting ducts and possibly to distal tubular acidosis. In addition, there is evidence that decreased numbers of mineralocorticoid receptors, which are detected in 75% of patients who are treated with cyclosporine, lead to hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis as a result of aldosterone resistance. Recently, it was demonstrated that cyclosporine reduces paracellin-1 expression in thick ascending limb cells. The resulting decrease in magnesium transport likely contributes to the magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia induced by cyclosporine, which is associated with chronic interstitial fibrosis, a faster rate of decline of kidney function, and increased rates of graft loss in renal transplant recipients with CNI nephrotoxicity. Finally, it was shown that cyclosporine indirectly opens ATP-sensitive K+ channels by inhibition of calcineurin, which could contribute to the CNI-associated hyperkalemia. 

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/18/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 47 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old Hispanic woman is referred to you for evaluation of nephrotic syndrome. She has history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Both diabetes and hypertension are well controlled. Her serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows only proteinuria, and protein to creatinine ratio is 6. A renal biopsy shows amyloidosis and interstitial fibrosis. Based on the above history, biopsy findings, and proteinuria, which one of the following diagnostic tests you order to characterize the type of her amyloidosis?

A. Electron microscopy of the glomerulus.
B. Immunofluorescent studies.
C. Immunofixation study.
D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).
E. No further testing.
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).

 

Explanation. 

ALECT2 amyloidosis is a systemic form of amyloidosis with predominantly renal and liver involvement. Most reported cases in North America (88 to 92 %) occur in older Hispanic adults of Mexican origin, although Punjabis, First Nations people in British Columbia, and Native Americans also have a predisposition for this disorder. In one study of renal amyloidosis among Egyptians, ALECT2 amyloidosis was the second most common form of renal amyloidosis behind AA and ahead of AL amyloidosis. Cases have also been reported in Pakistani, Sudanese, and Chinese patients. The pathogenesis of ALECT2 amyloidosis is not well understood. Patients typically present with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and variable proteinuria; nephrotic syndrome is uncommon. A kidney biopsy, preferably with laser microdissection and mass spectrometry, is required to make the diagnosis. Patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis characteristically have diffuse Congo red-positive amyloid deposition in the cortical interstitium, with variable glomerular and vascular involvement. In general, patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis have better overall survival than those with AL or AA amyloidosis, possibly due to the absence or rare occurrence of cardiac involvement. However, renal survival is relatively poor, with up to 39 percent of patients progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). There are no specific therapies for ALECT2 amyloidosis.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/19/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 48 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old Hispanic woman is referred to you for evaluation of nephrotic syndrome. She has history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Both diabetes and hypertension are well controlled. Her serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows only proteinuria, and protein to creatinine ratio is 6. A renal biopsy shows amyloidosis and interstitial fibrosis. Based on the above history, biopsy findings, and proteinuria, which one of the following diagnostic tests you order to characterize the type of her amyloidosis?

A. Electron microscopy of the glomerulus.
B. Immunofluorescent studies.
C. Immunofixation study.
D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).
E. No further testing.
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).

 

Explanation. 

ALECT2 amyloidosis is a systemic form of amyloidosis with predominantly renal and liver involvement. Most reported cases in North America (88 to 92 %) occur in older Hispanic adults of Mexican origin, although Punjabis, First Nations people in British Columbia, and Native Americans also have a predisposition for this disorder. In one study of renal amyloidosis among Egyptians, ALECT2 amyloidosis was the second most common form of renal amyloidosis behind AA and ahead of AL amyloidosis. Cases have also been reported in Pakistani, Sudanese, and Chinese patients. The pathogenesis of ALECT2 amyloidosis is not well understood. Patients typically present with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and variable proteinuria; nephrotic syndrome is uncommon. A kidney biopsy, preferably with laser microdissection and mass spectrometry, is required to make the diagnosis. Patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis characteristically have diffuse Congo red-positive amyloid deposition in the cortical interstitium, with variable glomerular and vascular involvement. In general, patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis have better overall survival than those with AL or AA amyloidosis, possibly due to the absence or rare occurrence of cardiac involvement. However, renal survival is relatively poor, with up to 39 percent of patients progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). There are no specific therapies for ALECT2 amyloidosis.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/19/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167274
  • 49 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
Omitted
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/12/2017
Last Modified: 03/07/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167274
  • 50 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 35 year-old Caucasian male presents with persistent swelling of both legs associated with dark colored urine for two months. He went to an emergency room 2 months ago for these complaints and was told that he has some protein and blood in the urine. He was treated with 3 days of levofloxacin. There is no other past medical history. No history of skin rash or joint swelling. On examination the blood pressure was 130/85 mm Hg and there was bilateral 1+ pedal edema. Rest of the physical examination was normal. Urine analysis showed 3+ proteinuria, 10-15 RBCs per high-power field, and occasional RBC cast. The BUN was 10 mg/dL, serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Antistreptolysin was negative, C3 level is decreased and C4 level is normal. Antinuclear antibodies, ANCA, hepatitis B and C serology were negative. 24-hour urine collection showed 2 g proteinuria and a kidney biopsy was performed. On light microscopy, kidney biopsy showed increase in the mesangial matrix and cellularity and glomerular basement membrane appeared irregularly thickened. Silver stain revealed duplication of glomerular basement membrane in multiple glomeruli. Immunofluorescence showed positive staining for C3, but negative for IgG, IgM and IgA. Electron microscopy revealed electron-dense deposits in the mesangium and sub-endothelial area. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerular nephritis
B. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis 
C. Dense deposit disease 
D. C3 glomerulopathy 
E.
Omitted
The correct answer is D
C3 glomerulopathy

Explanation:

This patient has proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, hypertension and edema suggestive of acute nephritis of 2 months duration. The classic prototype of acute nephritis is acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Typically in the acute post infective glomerular nephritis, complement levels normalize in 6 weeks and generally proteinuria and microhematuria resolve in approximately 6 weeks. Hence (Choice A) is wrong. This patient has hypocomplementemia and features of acute nephritis for 2 months suggesting that we should look for other causes of acute nephritis. 

Acute nephritis with low complement levels:
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C3 Nephropathy

Acute nephritis with normal complement levels:
IgA nephropathy
Thin basement membrane disease
Hereditary nephritis
HSP
Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerular nephritis
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Dense deposit disease

This patient is a male and ANA is negative. Lupus is mainly a disease affecting young women in third and fourth decade and most of them are ANA positive. A variety of glomerular pathologies are described, but immunofluorescence typically shows ‘full house’ pattern with positive IgG, IgM, IgA and C3. ANA negativity and not having the IF picture showing full house to suggest lupus nephritis makes lupus nephritis (Choice B) unlikely.

Dense deposit disease is type II MPGN and it mainly affects children and young adults. In the majority of patients there is circulating C3 nephritic factor. Immunofluorescence microscopy demonstrates C3 deposits, and EM shows characteristic sausage-shaped, wavy deposits along the glomerular basement membranes (GBM) and mesangium. Lack of typical EM appearance makes dense deposit disease (Choice C) unlikely.

C3 Glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. In “C3 glomerulopathy”, different light microscopy pathologies such as mesangioproliferative, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, crescentic GN and Sclerosing GN has been described. C3 level is usually low and C4 level is normal. In Sclerosing disease, C3 level can also be normal. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits. Hence, the  correct choice is (Choice D).

C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.

Educational Objective:
C3 glomerulopathy can present with varying degrees of proteinuria, azotemia and can advance to ESRD. It can recur after transplantation.
C3 glomerulopathy is a morphologic variant of MPGN type I. The distinct feature of this is that IF shows exclusively C3 deposits, without any immunoglobulins. EM does not show sausage shaped intra-membranous deposits.

IMPORTANT BOARD EXAM ADVICE:

1. Differentiate between DDD and C3GN
2. Know the glomerulonephritis with low and normal complement levels.
3. BOARD QUESTIONS will be asked on DDD and C3GN, so know it well.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/12/2017
Last Modified: 03/07/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 51 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All of the following are helpful in predicting AV Graft stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Hyperpulsatility of the AV Graft
B. Ruduced pulse augmentation
C. Increased bleeding and clots 
D. Decreased KT/V
E. Decreased Blood Flow rate
F. Surveillance of the graft
Omitted
The correct answer is F

Surveillance of the graft

Explanation:

Intra-graft or venous outflow stenosis – A strong pulse in the AV graft - HYPERPULSATILITY suggests an increase in resistance as occurs with a venous stenotic lesion. The intensity of this pulse is directly proportional to the severity of the stenosis. For this reason, in an AV graft Hyperpulsatility can be considered as an indicator of impending AV graft stenosis.

Arterial stenosis – REDUCED PULSE AUGMENTATION suggests inflow stenosis due to stenosis of the arterial anastomosis or of the feeding artery. Although pulse augmentation is commonly performed, it is less sensitive for the detection of inflow stenosis in AV grafts compared with AV fistulas.

INCREASED BLOOD CLOTS, DECREASED KT/V, and DECREASED BLOOD FLOW RATE are all suggestive of impending AV graft stenosis. Often patients are seen with dilated, collateral veins over the arm and chest wall (very important to examine your hemodialysis patients after taking off their shirts) suggestive of central venous stenosis - The classic physical finding in a patient with a significant central venous stenosis is diffuse upper extremity edema. Subcutaneous collateral veins are frequently evident over the chest. Swelling and collateral veins are caused by generalized venous hypertension of the extremity, which occurs in central, but is rare with peripheral lesions. 

SURVEILLANCE  does not predict AV Graft stenosis. It is not a sensitive or specific modality to detect the same accurately.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 52 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All of the following are helpful in predicting AV Graft stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Hyperpulsatility of the AV Graft
B. Ruduced pulse augmentation
C. Increased bleeding and clots 
D. Decreased KT/V
E. Decreased Blood Flow rate
F. Surveillance of the graft
Omitted
The correct answer is F

Surveillance of the graft

Explanation:

Intra-graft or venous outflow stenosis – A strong pulse in the AV graft - HYPERPULSATILITY suggests an increase in resistance as occurs with a venous stenotic lesion. The intensity of this pulse is directly proportional to the severity of the stenosis. For this reason, in an AV graft Hyperpulsatility can be considered as an indicator of impending AV graft stenosis.

Arterial stenosis – REDUCED PULSE AUGMENTATION suggests inflow stenosis due to stenosis of the arterial anastomosis or of the feeding artery. Although pulse augmentation is commonly performed, it is less sensitive for the detection of inflow stenosis in AV grafts compared with AV fistulas.

INCREASED BLOOD CLOTS, DECREASED KT/V, and DECREASED BLOOD FLOW RATE are all suggestive of impending AV graft stenosis. Often patients are seen with dilated, collateral veins over the arm and chest wall (very important to examine your hemodialysis patients after taking off their shirts) suggestive of central venous stenosis - The classic physical finding in a patient with a significant central venous stenosis is diffuse upper extremity edema. Subcutaneous collateral veins are frequently evident over the chest. Swelling and collateral veins are caused by generalized venous hypertension of the extremity, which occurs in central, but is rare with peripheral lesions. 

SURVEILLANCE  does not predict AV Graft stenosis. It is not a sensitive or specific modality to detect the same accurately.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 53 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity in a renal transplant recipient is associated with all the below renal biopsy findings EXCEPT:

(THIS PICTURE BELOW IN LOW POWER SHOWS ONE OF THE CLASSICAL FINDINGS IN CSA TOXICITY)


A. Interstitial Fibrosis  
B. Tubular atrophy 
C. Endothelial cell swelling 
D. Glomerular thrombin deposits
E. Glomerular basement membrane thickening 
F. Double contours of the GB 
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Glomerular thrombin deposits

Explanation:

In a patient with suspected cyclosporine nephrotoxicity, the renal biopsy reveals an obliterative arteriolopathy (which is classically seen in afferent renal arterioles) suggesting primary endothelial damage and subsequently endothelial cell swelling which may persist for months in a patient with elevated cyclosporine blood levels. This is also associated with thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern. In fact according to BANF thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern is most suggestive of chronic allograft nephropathy (CAN) also called as TRANSPLANT GLOMERULOPATHY. 

The other renal biopsy findings of cyclosporine nephrotoxicity include ischemic collapse or scarring of the glomeruli, vacuolization of the tubules, FSGS, and focal areas of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis (producing a picture of “ZEBRA” or "STRIPED" fibrosis) These changes are seen with both low-dose and higher-dose cyclosporine therapy, although they seem to co-relate earlier with higher doses. 

(THE ABOVE PICTURE IN THE UPPER HALF SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY APPEARING DARK AND REDDISH ALTERNATING WITH LIGHT BLUE AREAS OF INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS GIVING A "STRIPED" OR "ZEBRA" APPEARANCE)

THE PICTURE BELOW SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY, VACUOLIZATION OF THE TUBULES AND ISCHEMIC CHANGES:


Mild arteriolar hyalinosis at six months appears to be associated with high doses of cyclosporine and was reversible. However, after more than a year irreversible severe arteriolar hyalinosis and glomerulosclerosis were observed, despite decreased doses and trough levels of cyclosporine.

Glomerular thrombin deposits are typically seen in patients with Lupus, anti phospholipid syndromes and other vasculitides. It is typically not seen in cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 54 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity in a renal transplant recipient is associated with all the below renal biopsy findings EXCEPT:

(THIS PICTURE BELOW IN LOW POWER SHOWS ONE OF THE CLASSICAL FINDINGS IN CSA TOXICITY)


A. Interstitial Fibrosis  
B. Tubular atrophy 
C. Endothelial cell swelling 
D. Glomerular thrombin deposits
E. Glomerular basement membrane thickening 
F. Double contours of the GB 
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Glomerular thrombin deposits

Explanation:

In a patient with suspected cyclosporine nephrotoxicity, the renal biopsy reveals an obliterative arteriolopathy (which is classically seen in afferent renal arterioles) suggesting primary endothelial damage and subsequently endothelial cell swelling which may persist for months in a patient with elevated cyclosporine blood levels. This is also associated with thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern. In fact according to BANF thickened glomerular basement membrane and double contour pattern is most suggestive of chronic allograft nephropathy (CAN) also called as TRANSPLANT GLOMERULOPATHY. 

The other renal biopsy findings of cyclosporine nephrotoxicity include ischemic collapse or scarring of the glomeruli, vacuolization of the tubules, FSGS, and focal areas of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis (producing a picture of “ZEBRA” or "STRIPED" fibrosis) These changes are seen with both low-dose and higher-dose cyclosporine therapy, although they seem to co-relate earlier with higher doses. 

(THE ABOVE PICTURE IN THE UPPER HALF SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY APPEARING DARK AND REDDISH ALTERNATING WITH LIGHT BLUE AREAS OF INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS GIVING A "STRIPED" OR "ZEBRA" APPEARANCE)

THE PICTURE BELOW SHOWS TUBULAR ATROPHY, VACUOLIZATION OF THE TUBULES AND ISCHEMIC CHANGES:


Mild arteriolar hyalinosis at six months appears to be associated with high doses of cyclosporine and was reversible. However, after more than a year irreversible severe arteriolar hyalinosis and glomerulosclerosis were observed, despite decreased doses and trough levels of cyclosporine.

Glomerular thrombin deposits are typically seen in patients with Lupus, anti phospholipid syndromes and other vasculitides. It is typically not seen in cyclosporine nephrotoxicity.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/14/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165242
  • 55 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
F. Diabetic nephropathy
Omitted

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165242
  • 56 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 60 year-old with recently diagnosed colon cancer and diabetes presents with bilateral pedal edema, BP is 120/80 mm Hg, Urinalysis showed  4+ protein, no RBCs or WBCs, and 8-10 Hyaline casts. His BUN is 20, Creatinine is 1 mg/dL, and albumin is 2 grams/dL. 24 hour urine collection showed 10 grams protein. The patient undergoes kidney biopsy. The EM is shown below :


What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.  Crescentic GN
B.  IgA nephropathy
C.  Minimal change disease
D.  Focal segmental glomeruloscerosis
E.  Membranous nephropathy
F. Diabetic nephropathy
Omitted

The correct answer is E

Membranous Nephropathy.

The Electron microscopy shows subepithelial electron dense deposit as classically seen in membranous nephropathy. If in the question there is a suggestion of colon, breast, or lung cancer, then the glomerulopathy is usually membranous. After that look for other findings on histopathology which will confirm the diagnosis. Subepithelial electron dense deposits.

Explanation:

BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE ASSOCIATIONS :

1. Solid cancers (colon, breast, lung, renal) plus proteinuria = Membranous nephropathy

2. Hodgkins lymphoma plus proteinuria = Minimal change disease

3. HIV plus proteinuria = Focal segment glomerulosclerosis FSGS

4. Pamidronate plus protenuria = FSGS (rare)

5. Myeloma, no albuminuria on dipstix, but proteinuria on protein/creatinine ratio or 24 hrs urine: Light chain nephropathy

6. Myeloma with non specific proteinuria (on dipstix, urine protein/creatinine ratio and 24 hrs urine): Light chain nephropathy or amyloidosis.


BOARD POINT - FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THESE HISTOPATHOLOGY ASSOCIATIONS FOR VARIOUS GLOMERULAR DISEASES



Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165243
  • 57 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

You are the nephrologist on call. The  ER calls you for an 18 year-old female who complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Her serum sodium is 116 mEq/L and Serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. On physical examination the patient is drowsy, Pulse is 126/min, BP is 90/60 mm of Hg, and RR is  32/min. Her chest is clear. Her heart sounds are normal, and no murmur is visible. The patient is drowsy but arousable and there was no focal neurological deficit. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Hb    16 gm/dl 

WBC   12,800/cmm 

Polymorph  46% 

Lymphocytes  16% 

Eosinophils  4%

Monocytes  4%

Platelets   2,40,000/cmm.

CL    70 mEq/L

BUN  10 mg/dl

Creatinine  0.5 mg/dl

Na    116 mEq/L

K    5.8 mEq/L


Urinalysis:

pH    6.4

Protein  trace

Glucose  absent

microscopic occasional WBCs & RBCs

Urinary Na  90 mEq/L

Urinary K         20 mEq/L

ABG    

PH                   7.32

PCO2   36 

HCO3   20 mEq/L

PaO2   92

O2 saturation  98%

S. Cortisol  6.00 mg/dl

TSH   3.5 IU/m (Normal 0-5 IU/m ).

Both plasma Renin and Aldosterone are high. 

Which of the following conditions is most likely with these findings?


A. Type 4 RTA 
B. Pseudo-hypo-aldosteronism Type 1 
C. Gordon's syndrome
D.  Diarrhea
Omitted
The correct answer is B
 
Pseudo hypo-aldosteronism type 1

Explanation:

This patient has hyponatremia with high urinary sodium. High serum potassium, low urinary potassium, and normal adrenal function. The serum aldosterone level is high, suggesting resistance to aldosterone action of target organ. These findings are characteristic of Pseudohypo aldosteronism type1 (PHA Type1)

PHA type1 is a rare hereditary disorder, characterized by generalized resistance to the action of aldosterone. It presents with 
1. Salt wasting 
2. Hypovolemia 
3. Normotension
4. Metabolic acidosis 
5. Hyperkalemia
6. High Renin and Aldosterone.  

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 6 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 1

These are two different modes of inheritance:
1] Autosomal recessive.
2] Autosomal dominant.

Autosomal recessive affects the epithelial sodium channel and other target organs like kidney, colon, and sweat gland. There is a down regulation of the sodium channels and decreased sodium transport.

Autosomal dominant or sporadic form is due to heterozygous mutations in the NR3C2 gene coding for mineralocorticoid receptor. This is milder form than autosomal recessive disease in which only kidney is affected. The disease often improves with age.

Treatment consists of high salt diet. This prevents volume depletion and by enhancing sodium delivery to the distal tubules, potassium exertion increases, thereby bringing down the serum potassium. 

High dose Fludrocortisone (1 to 2 mg/day ), or Carbenoxolone is indicated if high salt intake is ineffective or not tolerated.

(Choice A) Type IV RTA will have low aldesterone and low renin level. Therefore, that is not the likely answer.

(Choice D) Diarrhea will have metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia and Net urine charge will be negative. This patient has positive Net urine charge with hyperkalemia which rules out diarrhea as a cause.

(Choice C)  = PHA TYPE 2 (Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2) OR = Gordon’s syndrome is characterized by:
 1. Hypertension 
 2. Hyperkalaemia 
 3. Metabolic acidosis
 4. Low plasma Renin and Aldosterone. This is due to mutations in WNK kinases 1 and 4. These mutations result in increased  chloride reabsorption with sodium retention thereby resulting in hypertension.

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 4 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 2 or GORDON's SYNDROME

IF YOU KNOW THESE 10 POINTS OF PSEUDOHYPOALDOSTERONISM TYPE 1 & 2 THAN YOU CAN ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON PHA 1, 2 AND GORDON'S SYNDROME WHICH ARE GOING TO BE ASKED FOR SURE ON THE BOARDS.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165243
  • 58 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

You are the nephrologist on call. The  ER calls you for an 18 year-old female who complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Her serum sodium is 116 mEq/L and Serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L. On physical examination the patient is drowsy, Pulse is 126/min, BP is 90/60 mm of Hg, and RR is  32/min. Her chest is clear. Her heart sounds are normal, and no murmur is visible. The patient is drowsy but arousable and there was no focal neurological deficit. Laboratory findings are as follows:

Hb    16 gm/dl 

WBC   12,800/cmm 

Polymorph  46% 

Lymphocytes  16% 

Eosinophils  4%

Monocytes  4%

Platelets   2,40,000/cmm.

CL    70 mEq/L

BUN  10 mg/dl

Creatinine  0.5 mg/dl

Na    116 mEq/L

K    5.8 mEq/L


Urinalysis:

pH    6.4

Protein  trace

Glucose  absent

microscopic occasional WBCs & RBCs

Urinary Na  90 mEq/L

Urinary K         20 mEq/L

ABG    

PH                   7.32

PCO2   36 

HCO3   20 mEq/L

PaO2   92

O2 saturation  98%

S. Cortisol  6.00 mg/dl

TSH   3.5 IU/m (Normal 0-5 IU/m ).

Both plasma Renin and Aldosterone are high. 

Which of the following conditions is most likely with these findings?


A. Type 4 RTA 
B. Pseudo-hypo-aldosteronism Type 1 
C. Gordon's syndrome
D.  Diarrhea
Omitted
The correct answer is B
 
Pseudo hypo-aldosteronism type 1

Explanation:

This patient has hyponatremia with high urinary sodium. High serum potassium, low urinary potassium, and normal adrenal function. The serum aldosterone level is high, suggesting resistance to aldosterone action of target organ. These findings are characteristic of Pseudohypo aldosteronism type1 (PHA Type1)

PHA type1 is a rare hereditary disorder, characterized by generalized resistance to the action of aldosterone. It presents with 
1. Salt wasting 
2. Hypovolemia 
3. Normotension
4. Metabolic acidosis 
5. Hyperkalemia
6. High Renin and Aldosterone.  

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 6 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 1

These are two different modes of inheritance:
1] Autosomal recessive.
2] Autosomal dominant.

Autosomal recessive affects the epithelial sodium channel and other target organs like kidney, colon, and sweat gland. There is a down regulation of the sodium channels and decreased sodium transport.

Autosomal dominant or sporadic form is due to heterozygous mutations in the NR3C2 gene coding for mineralocorticoid receptor. This is milder form than autosomal recessive disease in which only kidney is affected. The disease often improves with age.

Treatment consists of high salt diet. This prevents volume depletion and by enhancing sodium delivery to the distal tubules, potassium exertion increases, thereby bringing down the serum potassium. 

High dose Fludrocortisone (1 to 2 mg/day ), or Carbenoxolone is indicated if high salt intake is ineffective or not tolerated.

(Choice A) Type IV RTA will have low aldesterone and low renin level. Therefore, that is not the likely answer.

(Choice D) Diarrhea will have metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia and Net urine charge will be negative. This patient has positive Net urine charge with hyperkalemia which rules out diarrhea as a cause.

(Choice C)  = PHA TYPE 2 (Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2) OR = Gordon’s syndrome is characterized by:
 1. Hypertension 
 2. Hyperkalaemia 
 3. Metabolic acidosis
 4. Low plasma Renin and Aldosterone. This is due to mutations in WNK kinases 1 and 4. These mutations result in increased  chloride reabsorption with sodium retention thereby resulting in hypertension.

NEPHROLOGY BOARD EXAM TAKERS REMEMBER THESE 4 POINTS FOR PHA TYPE 2 or GORDON's SYNDROME

IF YOU KNOW THESE 10 POINTS OF PSEUDOHYPOALDOSTERONISM TYPE 1 & 2 THAN YOU CAN ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON PHA 1, 2 AND GORDON'S SYNDROME WHICH ARE GOING TO BE ASKED FOR SURE ON THE BOARDS.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165247
  • 59 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
Omitted
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165247
  • 60 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 36 year-old female was diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy secondary to SLE. Her 24 hour protein excretion was 7.5 gms/day. Her serum creatinine was 0.9mg/dl. She was started on 500 mg of cyclophosphamide IV every 15 days (Euro-Lupus) and prednisolone 1 mg/kg orally per day. After 3 months of therapy, she presented with decreased urine output, puffiness of face, and oedema feet. On physical examination, her temperature is 37 C, blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. She is anemic and there is puffiness of the face and oedema of the feet. On systemic examination air entry was decreased in the bases of both the lung fields and heart sounds are distant and feeble. Chest X-Ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram reveals mild to moderate pericardial effusion. Laboratory examination is as follows: 

Hemoglobin   10.0 g/dL

Hematocrit   34%

Platelet Count   150,000 mm3

WBC    8,000 mm3

Differential count P  80% L 12% E 6% M 2%

ESR    50.8 mm/h


Urinalysis: 

Protein  1450 mg/24 h

Glucose  None

RBCs  70-80/HPF dysmorphic

WBCs  5-8/HPF

Leukocyte Esterase Negative

Nitrites  Negative

 BUN   35 mg/dL

Creatinine  3.9 mg/dL

Sodium   140 mEq/L

Potassium  5.2 mEq/L

Bicarbonate  15.5 mEq/L

Calcium   9.2 mEq/L

Phosphorus  5.6 mg/dL

Glucose   100 mg/dL

Uric Acid   5.3 mg/dL

C3 & C4 decreased 

ANA   positive

dsDNA   positive

Repeat biopsy shows:


Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for her current condition?


A. Mycophenolate and steroid
B. Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 
C. Rituximab 
D. I.V Immunoglobulins 
E. Plasma exchange  
Omitted
The correct answer is B

Mycophenolate, tacrolimus and steroids 

Explanation: 

This patient had membranous lupus being treated with Euro-Lupus regime. Activity in the urine with a positive ANA and dsDNA and low C3, C4 suggests activity of the disease. The biopsy is showing active lupus nephritis combined with features of class IV & V diffuse proliferative GN. Patients with both DPGN and membranous lesions are more likely to be resistant to standard induction regimens with cyclophosphamide or MMF with steroids. In these patients, combined treatment with MMF and tacrolimus is recommended. This was suggested by Bao H. et al in a small, short term prospective trial in which 40 patients with diffuse proliferative plus membranous lupus nephritis were randomly assigned to induction therapy with MMF (0.75g to 1g/d) and tacrolimus (3-4 mg/d) or intravenous cyclophosphamide alone .All patients received steroids. At nine months there was significantly higher rate of complete remission in patients treated with MMF and tacrolimus as compared to cyclophosphamide (65% versus 15%).

(Choice A) Mycophenolate and steroids can be used in patients who have received cyclophosphamide and are resistant to it.

(Choice C and D) Rituximab and I.V. Immunoglobulins can be used in patients with lupus nephritis who have failed to respond to cyclophosphamide, MMF and steroids.

(Choice E) Plasma exchange is recommended in patients with SLE and (TTP). 

KDIGO Clinical Practice Guidelines for Glomerulonephritis recommends the following treatment for resistant lupus nephritis:

Treatment of resistant disease 12.9.1: In patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria after completing one of the initial treatment regimens, consider performing a repeat kidney biopsy to distinguish active LN from scarring. (Not Graded) 12.9.2: Treat patients with worsening S. Cr and/or proteinuria who continue to have active LN on biopsy with one of the alternative initial treatment regimens. If patient has received cyclophosphamide use MMF and if patient has received MMF use cyclophosphamide (Not Graded) 12.9.3 

KDIGO suggests that non -responders who have failed more than one of the recommended initial regimens (cyclophosphamide, MMF or CNI) may be considered for treatment with rituximab, IV Immunoglobulins, or CNIs. (2D).


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165256
  • 61 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 30 year-old man comes to your office for a painful rash on the neck. He has fever and malaise. He has history of HIV. He is currently taking Tenofovir, emtricitabine, and indinavir.  The rash is suggestive of Herpes Zoster rash :

Physical examination does not reveal any oral cavity lesions. His current CD4 count is 250/mm3. His chemistry is normal. He is started on an intravenous medication for his rash. Two days later his chemistry is as follows:

Na    135 mEq/L

K     4.5 mEq/L                  

CL    100 mEq/L

HCO3   24 mEq/L                  

BUN  21 mg/dL                       

Cr   2.0 mEq/L

Glucose  95 mg/dL

Calcium   9.4 mg/dl

Urinalysis shows needle-shaped crystals in the sediment.

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his renal problem?


A.  Indinavir
B.  Tumor lysis syndrome
C.  Antifreeze ingestion
D.  Acyclovir
E.  IV TMP/SMX
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Acyclovir

Explanation:

This patient has a characteristic lesion of herpes zoster on his neck. The vesicles are 2-3 mm in size with erythematous base. They are in different stages of development. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in elderly and immunocompromised. This patient is 30 year old and immunocompromised (HIV positive with AIDS). The treatment of choice for herpes zoster in immunocompromised patient is IV acyclovir. High dose Acyclovir is one of the causes of crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are needle-shaped.

Indinavir (Choice A), a protease inhibitor, is a common cause of nephrolithiasis in HIV patients. Patients would often present with flank pain. Urinalysis would show hematuria and needle shaped crystals. This patient, however, had normal serum chemistry on presentation. Following two days of IV medication (acyclovir) his serum chemistry showed elevated creatinine suggesting acyclovir as the most likely cause.

Tumor lysis syndrome (Choice B) occurs in the setting of chemotherapy for lymphoma.  It leads to the formation of uric acid crystals which are also needle shaped. This patient has no such presentation.

Patients with Anti-freeze ingestion (Choice C) present with metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap. The initial test of urinalysis shows envelope-shaped oxalate crystals.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) (Choice E) has sulfonamide in it. Sulfonamide also leads to crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are often dumb-bell shaped.

Educational Objective:

Drugs causing Crystal-induced nephropathy:

ACYCLOVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

INDINAVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

SULPHONAMIDE --- Dumbell shaped crystals

CALCIUM OXALLATE (Antifreeze) --- Envelope shaped crystal

CALCIUM PO4---- Coffin shaped crystals

URIC ACID --- Hexagonal crystals

CYSTIENE --- Hexagonal crystals


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165256
  • 62 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 30 year-old man comes to your office for a painful rash on the neck. He has fever and malaise. He has history of HIV. He is currently taking Tenofovir, emtricitabine, and indinavir.  The rash is suggestive of Herpes Zoster rash :

Physical examination does not reveal any oral cavity lesions. His current CD4 count is 250/mm3. His chemistry is normal. He is started on an intravenous medication for his rash. Two days later his chemistry is as follows:

Na    135 mEq/L

K     4.5 mEq/L                  

CL    100 mEq/L

HCO3   24 mEq/L                  

BUN  21 mg/dL                       

Cr   2.0 mEq/L

Glucose  95 mg/dL

Calcium   9.4 mg/dl

Urinalysis shows needle-shaped crystals in the sediment.

Which of the following is most likely the cause of his renal problem?


A.  Indinavir
B.  Tumor lysis syndrome
C.  Antifreeze ingestion
D.  Acyclovir
E.  IV TMP/SMX
Omitted
The correct answer is D

Acyclovir

Explanation:

This patient has a characteristic lesion of herpes zoster on his neck. The vesicles are 2-3 mm in size with erythematous base. They are in different stages of development. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in elderly and immunocompromised. This patient is 30 year old and immunocompromised (HIV positive with AIDS). The treatment of choice for herpes zoster in immunocompromised patient is IV acyclovir. High dose Acyclovir is one of the causes of crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are needle-shaped.

Indinavir (Choice A), a protease inhibitor, is a common cause of nephrolithiasis in HIV patients. Patients would often present with flank pain. Urinalysis would show hematuria and needle shaped crystals. This patient, however, had normal serum chemistry on presentation. Following two days of IV medication (acyclovir) his serum chemistry showed elevated creatinine suggesting acyclovir as the most likely cause.

Tumor lysis syndrome (Choice B) occurs in the setting of chemotherapy for lymphoma.  It leads to the formation of uric acid crystals which are also needle shaped. This patient has no such presentation.

Patients with Anti-freeze ingestion (Choice C) present with metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap. The initial test of urinalysis shows envelope-shaped oxalate crystals.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) (Choice E) has sulfonamide in it. Sulfonamide also leads to crystal-induced nephropathy. The crystals are often dumb-bell shaped.

Educational Objective:

Drugs causing Crystal-induced nephropathy:

ACYCLOVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

INDINAVIR --- Needle shaped crystals

SULPHONAMIDE --- Dumbell shaped crystals

CALCIUM OXALLATE (Antifreeze) --- Envelope shaped crystal

CALCIUM PO4---- Coffin shaped crystals

URIC ACID --- Hexagonal crystals

CYSTIENE --- Hexagonal crystals


Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/29/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165258
  • 63 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

 In a CKD and ESRD patient, Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease events by controlling secondary hyperparathyroidism. The OPERA trial evaluated the effect of paricalcitol Vitamin D analog in CKD stages 3-5 with left ventricular hypertrophy. The study observed the effect on left ventricular mass and function.

Which of the following statements is true about the effect of paricalcitol in CKD and ESRD patients?

A. Paricalcitol treatment reduced LV mass
B. Paricalcitol treatment preserved LV ejection fraction
C. Paricalcitol treatment improved pulse wave velocity and arterial stiffness
D. Paricalcitol treatment improved blood pressure control
E. Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase 
Omitted
The correct answer is E

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase

Explanation:

Vitamin D Rx DOES NOT reduce LV mass OR LV ejection fraction OR arterial stiffness
Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease, but the reported effects of vitamin D on patient outcomes in CKD are controversial.

OPERA trial was a prospective, double blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial to determine whether oral activated vitamin D reduces left ventricular (LV) mass in patients with stages 3-5 CKD with LV hypertrophy.
Subjects with echocardiographic criteria of LV hypertrophy were randomly assigned to receive either oral paricalcitol (1 ?g) one time daily (n=30) or matching placebo (n=30) for 52 weeks.

The primary end point was change in LV mass index over 52 weeks, which was measured by cardiac magnetic resonance imaging. Secondary end points included changes in LV volume, echocardiographic measures of systolic and diastolic function, biochemical parameters of mineral bone disease, and measures of renal function.
Change in LV mass index did not differ significantly between groups (median [interquartile range], -2.59 [-6.13 to 0.32] g/m(2) with paricalcitol versus -4.85 [-9.89 to 1.10] g/m(2) with placebo).
Changes in LV volume, ejection fraction, and tissue Doppler-derived measures of early diastolic and systolic mitral annular velocities, and ratio of early mitral inflow velocity to early diastolic mitral annular velocity did not differ between the groups.

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced intact parathyroid hormone (P<0.001) and alkaline phosphatase (P=0.001) levels as well as the number of cardiovascular-related hospitalizations compared with placebo.

52 weeks of treatment with oral paricalcitol (1 ?g one time daily) significantly improved secondary hyperparathyroidism but did not alter measures of LV structure and function in patients with severe CKD and ESRD.

OPERA and PRIMO are two recent randomized clinical trials in patients with CKD, which evaluated paricalcitol for slowing the progression of left ventricular mass. Both these trials were found to have negative results.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165258
  • 64 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

 In a CKD and ESRD patient, Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease events by controlling secondary hyperparathyroidism. The OPERA trial evaluated the effect of paricalcitol Vitamin D analog in CKD stages 3-5 with left ventricular hypertrophy. The study observed the effect on left ventricular mass and function.

Which of the following statements is true about the effect of paricalcitol in CKD and ESRD patients?

A. Paricalcitol treatment reduced LV mass
B. Paricalcitol treatment preserved LV ejection fraction
C. Paricalcitol treatment improved pulse wave velocity and arterial stiffness
D. Paricalcitol treatment improved blood pressure control
E. Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase 
Omitted
The correct answer is E

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced PTH and alkaline phosphatase

Explanation:

Vitamin D Rx DOES NOT reduce LV mass OR LV ejection fraction OR arterial stiffness
Vitamin D seems to protect against cardiovascular disease, but the reported effects of vitamin D on patient outcomes in CKD are controversial.

OPERA trial was a prospective, double blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial to determine whether oral activated vitamin D reduces left ventricular (LV) mass in patients with stages 3-5 CKD with LV hypertrophy.
Subjects with echocardiographic criteria of LV hypertrophy were randomly assigned to receive either oral paricalcitol (1 ?g) one time daily (n=30) or matching placebo (n=30) for 52 weeks.

The primary end point was change in LV mass index over 52 weeks, which was measured by cardiac magnetic resonance imaging. Secondary end points included changes in LV volume, echocardiographic measures of systolic and diastolic function, biochemical parameters of mineral bone disease, and measures of renal function.
Change in LV mass index did not differ significantly between groups (median [interquartile range], -2.59 [-6.13 to 0.32] g/m(2) with paricalcitol versus -4.85 [-9.89 to 1.10] g/m(2) with placebo).
Changes in LV volume, ejection fraction, and tissue Doppler-derived measures of early diastolic and systolic mitral annular velocities, and ratio of early mitral inflow velocity to early diastolic mitral annular velocity did not differ between the groups.

Paricalcitol treatment significantly reduced intact parathyroid hormone (P<0.001) and alkaline phosphatase (P=0.001) levels as well as the number of cardiovascular-related hospitalizations compared with placebo.

52 weeks of treatment with oral paricalcitol (1 ?g one time daily) significantly improved secondary hyperparathyroidism but did not alter measures of LV structure and function in patients with severe CKD and ESRD.

OPERA and PRIMO are two recent randomized clinical trials in patients with CKD, which evaluated paricalcitol for slowing the progression of left ventricular mass. Both these trials were found to have negative results.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 09/20/2017
Last Modified: 08/06/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165263
  • 65 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.
Omitted

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018
Last Modified: 10/23/2020

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165263
  • 66 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 19-year-old woman, African American descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. She has been found to have type 1 diabetes mellitus since the age of 12 years of age. She has been using insulin pump for the last 5 years. She reports no hypoglycemic symptoms and has been monitoring blood sugar using flash glucose monitor. She reports infrequent hypoglycemic episodes all being self-managed. She met with an ophthalmologist for eye screening and has no retinopathy. She exercises regularly for 30 mins. Her vitals recording shows BP of 127/66 mmHg. Her BMI is 22.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable. 

Her laboratory investigation is as follows.


Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

13.2 gm/L 

WBC count

7.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils 

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils 

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

136 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.2 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

0.6 mg/dL

eGFR using CKD-EPI

153.1 ml/min/1.73m2

Sr. Bicarbonate

24 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

8.2%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-nil

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary protein 

86 milligrams/day

 

What is the MOST LIKELY False statement regarding renal hyper filtration stage of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient?

A. Renal hyper filtration is attenuated by SGLT2 inhibition.
B. Renal hyper filtration occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Obesity can also lead to single-nephron hyper filtration.
D. Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.
Omitted

The Correct Answer is Option D : Incretins like GLP-1 and GIP are neutral in terms of altering renal hemodynamics unlike SGLT2 blockers.


Supra-physiologic elevation in GFR is observed early in the natural history of type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus which is due to glomerular hyperfiltration. Pathogenesis of hyper filtration in diabetes is complex with a prominent role for hyperglycemia and distorted insulin levels especially in early diabetes and pre-diabetes.Dilatation of the afferent (pre-capillary) glomerular arteriole plays an important role in the hyper-filtration response, by raising both the intra-glomerular pressure and renal blood flow.

 

The effect of incretins can be demonstrated by experiment using GLP-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1RA) and dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP)–4 inhibitors which are associated with renal hemodynamic effects, potentially beyond glycemic control. These observations have been attributed to a GLP-1–mediated inhibition of NHE3 (which assembles with DPP-4 in the proximal tubular brush border), thereby reducing proximal sodium reabsorption and GFR through activation of TGF (tubuloglomerular feedback).


Option A :  In an 8-week study, empagliflozin in T1DM patients with whole-kidney hyper filtration (mean GFR 172±23 ml/min per 1.73 m2) demonstrated a glucose-independent 19%decrease in GFR, which was associated with a decline in ERPF (estimated renal plasma flow) and estimated glomerular pressure and increase in afferent arteriolar resistance, as assessed by the Gomez equations. SGLT2 inhibition could reduce (single-nephron) hyperfiltration in diabetes by restoring sodium-chloride concentration at the macula densa and subsequent TGF mediated afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.

 

Option B : Reported prevalence of hyper filtration at the whole-kidney level vary greatly: between 10% and 67% in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) (with GFR values up to 162 ml/min per 1.73 m2), and 6%–73% in patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) (up to 166 ml/min per 1.73 sq. m. 


Option C: Independent of diabetes and glucose levels, body weight also augments GFR (by about 15% in obese to about 56% in severely obese non-diabetic subjects).

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018
Last Modified: 10/23/2020

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165264
  • 67 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.
Incorrect

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 165264
  • 68 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old gentleman, Caucasian descent, comes to clinic for follow up visit. He is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 18 years. His father had diabetes from 40 years of age and developed kidney disease requiring dialysis after 15 years of diabetes. He reports no symptoms. He has been having hypertension and coronary artery disease with history of  PCI 2 years ago. He has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. His medications are sitagliptin, gliclazide and metformin in addition to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has been monitoring blood sugar at home and reports no hypoglycemia. He exercises at least at least 30 minutes per day. His vitals recording shows BP of 168/66 mm Hg. His BMI is 29.2.  Systemic  examination is unremarkable.

His laboratory investigation is reported as follows.

Characteristic

value

Hemoglobin

12.2 gm/L

WBC count

6.8 X 103/cubic mm

Platelet count

241 X 103/cubic mm

Segmented Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Band neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

60%

36%

2%

0%

2%

0%

Sr. Sodium

139 mEq/L

Sr. Potassium

4.9 mEq/L

Sr. Creatinine

1.2 mg/dL

Sr. Bicarbonate

22 mEq/L

Sr. Chloride

101 mEq/L

Total Bilirubin

1.0 mg /dL

AST

16 U/L

ALT

18 U/L

Sr. Albumin

4.0 g/dL

HBA1C

7.8%

Sr. Calcium

10 mg/dL

Urine dipstick

pH- 5.4

Albumin-trace

 no blood

 no WBCs

24-hour urinary albumin

200 milligrams/day


What is the MOST LIKELY correct statement regarding clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease in this patient ?

A. Diabetic Kidney Disease previously called as diabetic nephropathy can be diagnosed clinically with renal biopsy only.  
B. Presence of microalbuminuria is adequate for clinical diagnosis of Diabetic Kidney Disease. 
C. Presence of hematuria without non-diabetic kidney disease is impossible in Diabetic Kidney Disease as diabetic kidney disease is a non-proliferative glomerular disease. 
D. Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.
Incorrect

The Correct Answer is Option D: Family history of Diabetic Kidney Disease is associated with renal involvement in Diabetes.

 Explanation:

Familial studies have demonstrated clustering of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with DM with a first-degree relative with T1/T2DM and diabetic nephropathy have more risk for developing diabetic nephropathy than those without an affected relative. This familial clustering has also been well documented in the Pima Indian population. The candidate genes identified are glucose transporter 2(GLUT2), transforming growth factor beta (TGF- ?), and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS). 

Option A:  Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the following:

·         Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/d) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3-6 months apart

·         Progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

·         Elevated arterial blood pressure 

 Hence kidney biopsy is not a mandatory investigation to diagnose diabetic kidney disease.

 Option B:  If the amount of urine albumin exceeds 30 mg/d and is less than 300 mg/d it is called microalbuminuria, and if it is greater than 300 mg/d it is called macro albuminuria or overt albuminuria. Microalbuminuria is present in 5-7% of normal individuals and is associated with cardiovascular mortality and morbidity. It is marker of endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Presence of microalbuminuria alone with diabetes cannot be clinically diagnostic of diabetic kidney disease.

Option C:  Micro hematuria has been demonstrated in biopsy studies with isolated diabetic nephropathy. Red blood cell casts have also been described in patients with diabetic nephropathy. However, it is important to rule out other glomerular and extra-glomerular causes of hematuria.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 10/31/2018

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 69 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All the following drugs mentioned below cause hyperkalemia. All the drugs act by a specific mechanism to induce hyperkalemia. Only one drug acts by a different mechanism of action. Which is the drug which induces hyperkalemia via a different mechanism than others?  



A. Heparin.
B. Low molecular weight heparin. 
C. Aminoglutethimide. 
D. Dabigatran.
E. Calcineurin inhibitors. 
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Calcineurin inhibitors. 

 

Explanation. 

Heparin, Low molecular weight heparin, Aminoglutethimide and Dabigatran all cause impaired adrenal hormone metabolism. These drugs cause potent inhibition of adrenal hormone synthesis leading to hyperkalemia. 

The hyperkalemia seen with calcineurin inhibition is likely multifactorial and relates to inhibitory effects on Na+-K+-ATPase in collecting ducts and possibly to distal tubular acidosis. In addition, there is evidence that decreased numbers of mineralocorticoid receptors, which are detected in 75% of patients who are treated with cyclosporine, lead to hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis as a result of aldosterone resistance. Recently, it was demonstrated that cyclosporine reduces paracellin-1 expression in thick ascending limb cells. The resulting decrease in magnesium transport likely contributes to the magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia induced by cyclosporine, which is associated with chronic interstitial fibrosis, a faster rate of decline of kidney function, and increased rates of graft loss in renal transplant recipients with CNI nephrotoxicity. Finally, it was shown that cyclosporine indirectly opens ATP-sensitive K+ channels by inhibition of calcineurin, which could contribute to the CNI-associated hyperkalemia. 

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/18/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167339
  • 70 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

All the following drugs mentioned below cause hyperkalemia. All the drugs act by a specific mechanism to induce hyperkalemia. Only one drug acts by a different mechanism of action. Which is the drug which induces hyperkalemia via a different mechanism than others?  



A. Heparin.
B. Low molecular weight heparin. 
C. Aminoglutethimide. 
D. Dabigatran.
E. Calcineurin inhibitors. 
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Calcineurin inhibitors. 

 

Explanation. 

Heparin, Low molecular weight heparin, Aminoglutethimide and Dabigatran all cause impaired adrenal hormone metabolism. These drugs cause potent inhibition of adrenal hormone synthesis leading to hyperkalemia. 

The hyperkalemia seen with calcineurin inhibition is likely multifactorial and relates to inhibitory effects on Na+-K+-ATPase in collecting ducts and possibly to distal tubular acidosis. In addition, there is evidence that decreased numbers of mineralocorticoid receptors, which are detected in 75% of patients who are treated with cyclosporine, lead to hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis as a result of aldosterone resistance. Recently, it was demonstrated that cyclosporine reduces paracellin-1 expression in thick ascending limb cells. The resulting decrease in magnesium transport likely contributes to the magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia induced by cyclosporine, which is associated with chronic interstitial fibrosis, a faster rate of decline of kidney function, and increased rates of graft loss in renal transplant recipients with CNI nephrotoxicity. Finally, it was shown that cyclosporine indirectly opens ATP-sensitive K+ channels by inhibition of calcineurin, which could contribute to the CNI-associated hyperkalemia. 

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/18/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 71 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old Hispanic woman is referred to you for evaluation of nephrotic syndrome. She has history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Both diabetes and hypertension are well controlled. Her serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows only proteinuria, and protein to creatinine ratio is 6. A renal biopsy shows amyloidosis and interstitial fibrosis. Based on the above history, biopsy findings, and proteinuria, which one of the following diagnostic tests you order to characterize the type of her amyloidosis?

A. Electron microscopy of the glomerulus.
B. Immunofluorescent studies.
C. Immunofixation study.
D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).
E. No further testing.
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).

 

Explanation. 

ALECT2 amyloidosis is a systemic form of amyloidosis with predominantly renal and liver involvement. Most reported cases in North America (88 to 92 %) occur in older Hispanic adults of Mexican origin, although Punjabis, First Nations people in British Columbia, and Native Americans also have a predisposition for this disorder. In one study of renal amyloidosis among Egyptians, ALECT2 amyloidosis was the second most common form of renal amyloidosis behind AA and ahead of AL amyloidosis. Cases have also been reported in Pakistani, Sudanese, and Chinese patients. The pathogenesis of ALECT2 amyloidosis is not well understood. Patients typically present with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and variable proteinuria; nephrotic syndrome is uncommon. A kidney biopsy, preferably with laser microdissection and mass spectrometry, is required to make the diagnosis. Patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis characteristically have diffuse Congo red-positive amyloid deposition in the cortical interstitium, with variable glomerular and vascular involvement. In general, patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis have better overall survival than those with AL or AA amyloidosis, possibly due to the absence or rare occurrence of cardiac involvement. However, renal survival is relatively poor, with up to 39 percent of patients progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). There are no specific therapies for ALECT2 amyloidosis.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/19/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Next
Multiple
  • Test Id: 1956768b1c0570b902
  • QId: 167345
  • 72 of 72
  • Notes
  • Calculator
  • Feedback

A 68-year-old Hispanic woman is referred to you for evaluation of nephrotic syndrome. She has history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Both diabetes and hypertension are well controlled. Her serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows only proteinuria, and protein to creatinine ratio is 6. A renal biopsy shows amyloidosis and interstitial fibrosis. Based on the above history, biopsy findings, and proteinuria, which one of the following diagnostic tests you order to characterize the type of her amyloidosis?

A. Electron microscopy of the glomerulus.
B. Immunofluorescent studies.
C. Immunofixation study.
D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).
E. No further testing.
Omitted

Correct Answer. Option D. Amyloidosis derived from leukocyte chemotactic factor 2 (ALECT 2).

 

Explanation. 

ALECT2 amyloidosis is a systemic form of amyloidosis with predominantly renal and liver involvement. Most reported cases in North America (88 to 92 %) occur in older Hispanic adults of Mexican origin, although Punjabis, First Nations people in British Columbia, and Native Americans also have a predisposition for this disorder. In one study of renal amyloidosis among Egyptians, ALECT2 amyloidosis was the second most common form of renal amyloidosis behind AA and ahead of AL amyloidosis. Cases have also been reported in Pakistani, Sudanese, and Chinese patients. The pathogenesis of ALECT2 amyloidosis is not well understood. Patients typically present with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and variable proteinuria; nephrotic syndrome is uncommon. A kidney biopsy, preferably with laser microdissection and mass spectrometry, is required to make the diagnosis. Patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis characteristically have diffuse Congo red-positive amyloid deposition in the cortical interstitium, with variable glomerular and vascular involvement. In general, patients with ALECT2 amyloidosis have better overall survival than those with AL or AA amyloidosis, possibly due to the absence or rare occurrence of cardiac involvement. However, renal survival is relatively poor, with up to 39 percent of patients progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). There are no specific therapies for ALECT2 amyloidosis.

Copyright © ABIM Exam World
Created On: 05/19/2020
Last Modified: 01/28/2021

End

Previous Finish

End Review

Do you want to end this review?

Yes
(Drag me)

Feedback?(Drag me)